ATI Comprehensive 2024 Exit Exam with NGN -Nurselytic

Questions 170

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ATI Comprehensive 2024 Exit Exam with NGN Questions

Extract:

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client.


Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statements by the client indicate an understanding of the discharge teaching? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,D,E

Rationale: The correct statements (A, D, E) demonstrate an understanding of discharge teaching. A shows awareness of dietary recommendations post-discharge. D indicates knowledge of abnormal urine color as a reason to notify the provider. E reflects comprehension of incorporating fish in the diet for health benefits. The incorrect choices (B,
C) suggest misconceptions. B is inaccurate as pale bowel movements may indicate a liver issue. C may be harmful as coffee can interfere with medication.

Extract:

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for continuous enteral feedings through an NG tube.


Question 2 of 5

Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Measuring residuals prevents aspiration risks.

Extract:


Question 3 of 5

Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B,C,E

Rationale: The correct actions for the nurse to take are B, C, and E. B, Urine culture, is important to identify the causative organism of a urinary tract infection. C, Obtaining a provider prescription for antibiotics, is necessary to treat the infection. E, Obtaining a provider prescription for phenazopyridine, can help alleviate urinary discomfort.


Choice A, Vaginal culture, is not relevant to the scenario of a urinary tract infection.
Choice D, Ibuprofen for pain, is not addressing the infection itself. Without a prescription, phenazopyridine should not be administered.

Extract:

A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P.R interval of 0.35 seconds.


Question 4 of 5

Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree atrioventricular block. This dysrhythmia is characterized by a delay in conduction at the atrioventricular node, causing a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 sec) on ECG. It is a benign condition and does not typically require treatment unless symptomatic.

Choices B and D are more serious dysrhythmias that have different ECG patterns and clinical implications. Complete heart block (
Choice
B) presents with a lack of conduction between the atria and ventricles, leading to a slow ventricular rate. Atrial fibrillation (
Choice
D) is characterized by rapid, irregular atrial depolarizations without effective atrial contractions. Premature atrial complexes (
Choice
C) are early ectopic atrial beats that appear as abnormal P waves on ECG but do not cause significant conduction delays.

Extract:


Question 5 of 5

A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is in Buck's traction and is scheduled for surgery for a fractured femur of the right leg. Which of the following interventions should the nurse delegate to assistive personnel?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:
Correct Answer: D. Remind the client to use the incentive spirometer.


Rationale:
1. Incentive spirometer use is a task that can be safely delegated to assistive personnel.
2. It is a non-invasive procedure and does not require advanced nursing skills.
3. Using the incentive spirometer helps prevent respiratory complications post-surgery.
4. Assistive personnel can remind the client to use it regularly, promoting lung expansion and preventing atelectasis.

Summary of other choices:
A: Asking the client to describe pain requires nursing assessment skills.
B: Checking the client's pedal pulse requires nursing assessment skills.
C: Observing the position of the suspended weight requires nursing judgment to adjust if needed.

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