ATI RN
ATI Custom OB Exam 1 Summer 2023 Questions
Extract:
Client pregnant, taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anemia, reports black stools, no abdominal pain or cramping
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides an appropriate explanation for the situation. Iron is known to cause dark stools due to its breakdown in the digestive system. This response shows understanding and reassures the patient.
Choice A is relevant but doesn't address the specific issue.
Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests an unnecessary visit to the emergency room.
Choice D is a general invitation without addressing the concern.
Extract:
Client might have a hydatidiform mole
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive uterine enlargement. This finding is important to monitor in a pregnant client as it may indicate conditions such as multiple gestation, hydramnios, or molar pregnancy, which could pose risks to both the mother and baby. Monitoring uterine size helps in assessing fetal growth and development. Whitish vaginal discharge (
A) could be a normal finding or indicate a yeast infection, while fetal heart rate irregularities (
B) would be monitored using fetal monitoring, not uterine size. Rapidly dropping hCG levels (
D) could suggest a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy, but it is not directly related to uterine enlargement.
Extract:
Postpartum client, large amount of lochia rubra with several clots on perineal pad
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to check the client's fundus. This is prioritized because assessing the fundus helps determine the status of postpartum uterine involution and can indicate any signs of hemorrhage. By checking the fundus first, the nurse can promptly identify and address any abnormalities or complications. Measuring vital signs and feeling for a full bladder are important assessments but come after checking the fundus. Requesting a provider perform a vaginal examination is not the first action to take unless there are specific concerns or indications for it.
Extract:
Client at 28 weeks of gestation, history of one elective abortion at 9 weeks, birth of twins at 36 weeks, spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks
Question 4 of 5
According to the GTPAL system, which of the following describes her present parity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: According to the GTPAL system, "G" represents the total number of pregnancies. In this case, the correct answer is D (4-0-1-2-2) because it indicates the woman has had 4 pregnancies, 0 term births, 1 preterm birth, 2 living children, and 2 abortions/miscarriages. This is the correct interpretation of her present parity.
Choices A, B, and C have incorrect numbers for preterm births, living children, or abortions/miscarriages, making them incorrect.
Extract:
Client at first prenatal visit
Question 5 of 5
Arrange the steps in order, placing them in the selected order of occurrence from earliest to latest in gestation. Use all the steps.
Order the Items
Source Container
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct order is A, B, C, D, E, F. Firstly, breast tenderness (
A) typically occurs early in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Next, nausea and vomiting (
B) often start around the 6th week. Quickening (
C), the first fetal movements felt by the mother, occurs around 16-20 weeks. Goodell's sign (
D), softening of the cervix, happens around the 6th-8th week. Striae gravidarum (E), stretch marks, appear later in pregnancy due to skin stretching. Finally, lightening (F), when the baby drops lower in the pelvis, occurs in the last few weeks before labor. Other options are incorrect as they do not follow the chronological order of gestation milestones.