ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 Questions
Extract:
A nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate to manage pre-eclampsia.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following observations should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 40 mL in 2 hours is less than the normal range (at least 30 mL/hour). This could indicate kidney dysfunction, a serious complication of pre-eclampsia, and should be reported.
Extract:
A nurse is leading a discussion about contraception with a group of 14-year-old clients. After the presentation, a client asks the nurse which method would be best for her to use.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. A: This response acknowledges the need for a physical examination by a healthcare provider, ensuring appropriate assessment and care.
2. B: Asking about sexual activity before addressing the immediate concern may be intrusive and irrelevant.
3. C: Commenting on age is not helpful and may come across as judgmental or dismissive.
4. D: This response is presumptive and may not address the immediate need for medical attention.
5. E-G: Irrelevant options as they are not provided.
Summary:
Answer A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of seeking help from a healthcare provider for proper evaluation and care. Other choices are incorrect as they either miss the point, are judgmental, or are presumptive.
Extract:
A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated blood pressure. This finding should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for the disorder because it could be a sign of a serious health condition such as hypertension, which needs prompt assessment and management to prevent complications. Vaginal discharge (
A) could indicate an infection but does not necessarily relate to the specific disorder in question. Joint pain (
C) may be indicative of other conditions like arthritis. Increased urine output (
D) could be related to different factors such as increased fluid intake or diabetes, but not necessarily specific to the disorder being evaluated.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation. The client reports headache, dizziness, and blurred vision for 1 week. The nurse notes 3+ edema in lower extremities and deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) 3+ with positive clonus. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 140 with minimal variability.
Question 4 of 5
Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is most likely experiencing preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organs, typically after 20 weeks of pregnancy. The key indicators are hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. Chronic hypertension (
B) is high blood pressure that existed before pregnancy or that occurs before 20 weeks of pregnancy. Neurologic status (
C) and liver function studies (
D) may be affected by preeclampsia, but they are not the primary condition.
Extract:
A nurse in a hospital is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, and temperature 36.4 C (97.6° F). The client is placed on a fetal monitor indicating a regular fetal heart rate of 138/min and no uterine contractions.
Question 5 of 5
What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initiating IV access is the priority to allow rapid administration of fluids and medications to stabilize the client's condition, likely due to placenta previa causing significant bleeding.