ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023 Questions
Extract:
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is breastfeeding her newborn.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because feeding the baby at least every 3 hours helps maintain adequate nutrition and hydration, supporting healthy growth and development.
Choice B limits feeding time, potentially leading to insufficient intake.
Choice C is incorrect as newborns should not be given water as it can interfere with breastfeeding and lead to water intoxication.
Choice D is incorrect as newborns should have at least 6-8 wet diapers a day to ensure proper hydration and kidney function.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should identify which findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. This is an adverse effect of the medication because hypotension indicates low blood pressure, which can lead to dizziness, weakness, and fainting. It is important for the nurse to monitor and address hypotension promptly. Polyuria (
A) is increased urination, not typically an adverse effect. Bilateral crackles (
B) indicate fluid in the lungs, not directly related to medication adverse effects. Hyperglycemia (
C) is high blood sugar, more commonly associated with diabetes or corticosteroid use.
Extract:
A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fasting blood glucose 180 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL). This finding should be reported to the provider because it indicates hyperglycemia, which may require adjustment in the patient's diabetes management plan to prevent complications. A: WBC count within the range, so not urgent. B: Hematocrit within the range, so not critical. D: Creatinine within the range, so not an immediate concern. Reporting C is crucial for timely intervention.
Extract:
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for four clients.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should assess the client at 8 weeks gestation reporting severe vomiting first. This client could be suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of morning sickness that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, posing a risk to both the mother and the fetus. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent complications.
Choice A: Back pain following intercourse at 36 weeks gestation is common and usually not an urgent issue requiring immediate assessment.
Choice C: Frequent urination at 10 weeks gestation is a common symptom of early pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate need for assessment.
Choice D: Periodic tingling of the fingers at 24 weeks gestation could be due to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common in pregnancy but does not require immediate assessment unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Extract:
A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because chorionic villus sampling is used to detect genetic disorders, not determine the baby's sex (
A). Offering to schedule the procedure immediately without discussing risks or benefits (
C) is not appropriate. The statement about age restriction for amniocentesis (
D) is false and misleading. It's important for the nurse to focus on the purpose of the procedure, which is to identify genetic or congenital disorders in the baby (
B).