ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN -Nurselytic

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation. This is because medication reconciliation is crucial during transitions of care to ensure safe and accurate medication management. The nurse plays a key role in reconciling medications to prevent errors and ensure continuity of care.

Incorrect choices:
A: The client's provider is required to complete medication reconciliation - Incorrect, as nurses are often responsible for medication reconciliation, not just the provider.
B: Medication reconciliation at discharge is limited to the medications ordered at the time of discharge - Incorrect, as reconciliation should encompass all medications the client is taking.
D: Medication reconciliation is limited to the names of the medications that the client is currently taking - Incorrect, as it should also include dosages, frequencies, and routes of administration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent delirium tremens. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including preventing delirium tremens, a severe and potentially life-threatening complication. It helps to stabilize the client's central nervous system by reducing the risk of seizures and severe agitation associated with delirium tremens.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as chlordiazepoxide's primary role in alcohol withdrawal is not to minimize diaphoresis, maintain abstinence, or lessen craving, but rather to manage the more serious symptoms of withdrawal like delirium tremens.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check the client's blood glucose. This is the first action the nurse should take because metformin is used to treat diabetes and can lower blood sugar levels. Checking the client's blood glucose will help assess if the client is experiencing hypoglycemia due to the medication error. Reporting the incident to the charge nurse (
A) and filling out an incident report (
D) are important steps, but assessing the client's immediate condition takes priority. Notifying the provider (
B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. The other options are not relevant to addressing the immediate concern of potential hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Rationale:
C: Atropine is the correct answer because it is an anticholinergic medication that can counteract the excess acetylcholine causing cholinergic crisis in myasthenia gravis.
Incorrect choices:
A: Potassium Iodide is used for thyroid conditions, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
B: Glucagon is used for hypoglycemia, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
D: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not for myasthenia gravis crises.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids like heroin. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of unresponsiveness, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression indicate opioid toxicity. Naloxone will competitively bind to opioid receptors, reversing respiratory depression and potentially restoring consciousness. Methadone (
A) is used for opioid dependence but not acute toxicity. Diazepam (
C) is a benzodiazepine and not indicated for opioid toxicity. Bupropion (
D) is an antidepressant and not appropriate for this situation.