ATI RN
ATI Maternal NewBorn Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN All 70 Questions With Answers Questions
Extract:
A nurse is reviewing the provider's prescription in the adolescent's medical chart
Exhibit 1
History and Physical, Adolescent is sexually active with two current partners.
IUD in place, Reports not using condoms during sexual activity.
History of type 1 diabetes mellitus
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following indicates whether the adolescent understands the teaching on requires further education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1.
Choice D states, "As long as I keep my IUD, I don't need to use condoms." This statement indicates a misunderstanding as IUDs do not protect against sexually transmitted infections .
2. This statement shows a lack of understanding regarding the importance of using condoms to prevent STIs.
3.
Therefore, selecting
Choice D indicates that further education is required to clarify the misconception about the role of IUDs in STI prevention.
Summary:
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Choice A is correct as it indicates a misunderstanding about the necessity of taking medications regardless of symptoms.
-
Choice B is correct as it states a potential consequence of untreated infections, showing understanding.
-
Choice C is correct as it highlights a symptom that warrants immediate medical attention.
-
Choice E is incorrect as it does not pertain to the understanding of contraception and STI prevention.
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Choices F and G are not applicable and can be disregarded.
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is requesting epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct Answer: C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Rationale: Continuous monitoring of the client's blood pressure is crucial after administering epidural anesthesia to detect any potential hypotension, a common side effect. By monitoring every 5 minutes, the nurse can promptly intervene if hypotension occurs, preventing maternal and fetal compromise.
Summary of other choices:
A: Placing the client in a supine position can lead to hypotension due to inferior vena cava compression. Incorrect.
B: Administering dextrose solution is unrelated to epidural anesthesia and not indicated for pain control. Incorrect.
D: NPO status is not directly related to epidural anesthesia administration. Incorrect.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 70 hr old. Exhibit 1
Medical History
Newborn delivered by repeat cesarean birth at 40 weeks of gestation.
Birth weight 3,515 g (7 lb 12 oz)
Apgar scores 8 at 1 min and 9 at 5 min
Maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy.
Exhibit 2
Vital Signs
0700:
Heart rate 156/min
Respiratory rate 58/min
Temperature 37.2° C (98.9° F)
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
1100:
Heart rate 160/min
Respiratory rate 60/min
Temperature 37.3° C (99.2° F)
Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
Exhibit 3
Physical Examination
1100:
Newborn is inconsolable with a high-pitched cry. Newborn sucks vigorously on pacifier but
breastfeeds poorly. Respirations unlabored. Lungs sound clear on auscultation. Increased muscle
tone with moderate to severe tremors when disturbed. Hyperactive Moro reflex noted. Several
loose stools today.
Exhibit 4
Diagnostic Results
Maternal urine toxicology screen positive for opiates (negative)
Newborn urine toxicology screen positive for opiates (negative)
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: The nurse should report central nervous system (CNS) and gastrointestinal (GI) findings to the provider as they can indicate potential serious issues. CNS findings like altered mental status or neurological deficits may signal neurological problems. GI findings such as abdominal pain or bleeding may indicate gastrointestinal issues that require immediate attention. Respiratory findings (choice
A) and oxygen saturation (choice
B) are important but may not always require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal. The other choices are not directly related to urgent medical concerns. Reporting CNS and GI findings ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn 12 hr after birth. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jaundice. Jaundice in a newborn within the first 24 hours may indicate pathological conditions such as hemolytic disease or liver dysfunction. It requires immediate evaluation and treatment. Acrocyanosis (
A) is a common finding in newborns due to immature circulation. Transient strabismus (
B) is often seen in newborns and typically resolves on its own. Caput succedaneum (
D) is swelling on the newborn's scalp from pressure during birth, which is a normal finding.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer azithromycin to a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a positive chlamydia culture. The prescription states "Administer azithromycin 1 g orally now." Available are 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4 tablets. Azithromycin 1g is equivalent to 1000mg. Since each tablet is 250mg, the nurse should administer 1000mg/250mg = 4 tablets. This dosage is appropriate for treating chlamydia infection.
Choice A is incorrect because 8 tablets would be equivalent to 2000mg, which is double the prescribed dosage.
Choice B is incorrect as 6 tablets would be 1500mg, which is higher than the prescribed dosage.
Choice D is incorrect as 2 tablets would only be 500mg, which is lower than the prescribed dosage.