ATI RN
ATI Maternal NewBorn Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN All 70 Questions With Answers Questions
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 70 hr old. Exhibit 1
Medical History
Newborn delivered by repeat cesarean birth at 40 weeks of gestation.
Birth weight 3,515 g (7 lb 12 oz)
Apgar scores 8 at 1 min and 9 at 5 min
Maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy.
Exhibit 2
Vital Signs
0700:
Heart rate 156/min
Respiratory rate 58/min
Temperature 37.2° C (98.9° F)
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
1100:
Heart rate 160/min
Respiratory rate 60/min
Temperature 37.3° C (99.2° F)
Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
Exhibit 3
Physical Examination
1100:
Newborn is inconsolable with a high-pitched cry. Newborn sucks vigorously on pacifier but
breastfeeds poorly. Respirations unlabored. Lungs sound clear on auscultation. Increased muscle
tone with moderate to severe tremors when disturbed. Hyperactive Moro reflex noted. Several
loose stools today.
Exhibit 4
Diagnostic Results
Maternal urine toxicology screen positive for opiates (negative)
Newborn urine toxicology screen positive for opiates (negative)
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: The nurse should report central nervous system (CNS) and gastrointestinal (GI) findings to the provider as they can indicate potential serious issues. CNS findings like altered mental status or neurological deficits may signal neurological problems. GI findings such as abdominal pain or bleeding may indicate gastrointestinal issues that require immediate attention. Respiratory findings (choice
A) and oxygen saturation (choice
B) are important but may not always require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal. The other choices are not directly related to urgent medical concerns. Reporting CNS and GI findings ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention.
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased platelet count. In idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), there is a decrease in platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. This can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.
Explanation for other choices:
B: Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is not typically associated with ITP.
C: Decreased megakaryocytes may be seen in some cases of ITP but is not a consistent finding.
D: Increased WBC is not a characteristic finding in ITP.
Therefore, the most relevant finding in a client with ITP would be a decreased platelet count due to the underlying pathophysiology of the condition.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is requesting epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct Answer: C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Rationale: Continuous monitoring of the client's blood pressure is crucial after administering epidural anesthesia to detect any potential hypotension, a common side effect. By monitoring every 5 minutes, the nurse can promptly intervene if hypotension occurs, preventing maternal and fetal compromise.
Summary of other choices:
A: Placing the client in a supine position can lead to hypotension due to inferior vena cava compression. Incorrect.
B: Administering dextrose solution is unrelated to epidural anesthesia and not indicated for pain control. Incorrect.
D: NPO status is not directly related to epidural anesthesia administration. Incorrect.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the newborn is experiencing pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chin quivering. Pain assessment in newborns can be challenging due to their limited ability to communicate. Chin quivering is a nonverbal sign of pain in newborns. It indicates stress and discomfort. Decreased heart rate, pinpoint pupils, and slowed respirations are not reliable indicators of pain in newborns and may be attributed to other factors.
Therefore, the nurse should identify chin quivering as a significant sign of pain in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Minimal arm recoil. In premature newborns born at 26 weeks of gestation, they typically exhibit minimal arm recoil due to their immature neuromuscular development. This is a key characteristic assessed in the New Ballard Score to determine the gestational age of the newborn.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected findings in a premature newborn at 26 weeks of gestation. Popliteal angle of 90° (
Choice
B) is more typical in a term newborn. Creases over the entire foot sole (
Choice
C) are also more common in term newborns. Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds (
Choice
D) are indicative of a more mature newborn and not typically seen in a premature newborn at 26 weeks of gestation.