ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse document as a manifestation of pseudoparkinsonism in a client taking haloperidol?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shuffling gait. Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of haloperidol characterized by symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease. A shuffling gait, along with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, are common manifestations. A serpentine limb movement (
A) is not typically associated with pseudoparkinsonism. Nonreactive pupils (
C) are more indicative of other conditions like opioid overdose. Smacking lips (
D) may suggest tardive dyskinesia, another side effect of antipsychotic medications.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications interacts with carbamazepine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Estrogen-progestin combination (Non-hormonal forms of contraception). Carbamazepine induces the metabolism of estrogen and progestin, reducing their effectiveness and potentially leading to contraceptive failure. Nicotine (choice
A) does not interact with carbamazepine. Diphenhydramine (choice
B) is an antihistamine and does not have a significant interaction with carbamazepine. Beclomethasone (choice
D) is a corticosteroid inhaler and does not interact with carbamazepine.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take after inadvertently administering 160 mg of valsartan PO to a client who was scheduled to receive 80 mg?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension. After administering double the prescribed dose of valsartan, the nurse's priority is to assess the client for potential adverse effects, such as a sudden drop in blood pressure leading to orthostatic hypotension. This is crucial for immediate intervention to prevent complications.
B: Monitoring urine output is important but not the priority after an overdose.
C: Obtaining laboratory results may be necessary later but is not the immediate action needed.
D: Checking for nasal congestion is unrelated to the overdose of valsartan.
In summary, choice A is correct as it addresses the immediate concern of potential adverse effects, while the other choices are not the priority given the situation.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to a client with myasthenia gravis who is in a cholinergic crisis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Rationale: In a cholinergic crisis, the client experiences excessive muscarinic effects due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system. Atropine is a cholinergic antagonist that blocks the effects of excessive acetylcholine, alleviating symptoms such as bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and excessive secretions. Potassium iodide, glucagon, and protamine are not indicated for managing cholinergic crisis. Potassium iodide is used in thyroid emergencies, glucagon for beta-blocker overdose, and protamine for heparin overdose.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprinWhich of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching about cyclobenzaprine was effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct Answer: C - "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it."
Rationale: Tapering off cyclobenzaprine is important to prevent withdrawal symptoms due to its muscle relaxant properties. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to rebound muscle spasms and other adverse effects.
Therefore, the client's statement of tapering off the medication before discontinuing it indicates understanding of the proper way to stop taking cyclobenzaprine.
Summary of other choices:
A: Increased saliva production is not a common side effect of cyclobenzaprine.
B: Continuing the medication until the rash disappears is not relevant to cyclobenzaprine use.
D: Reporting urinary incontinence is important but not specifically related to the teaching about cyclobenzaprine.