ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following findings is the best indication that morphine has been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10. This is the best indication that morphine has been effective because pain relief is the primary goal of administering morphine. A pain rating of 3 indicates that the medication has successfully reduced the client's pain level. Vital signs being within normal limits (choice
A) may not necessarily indicate pain relief. The client not requesting additional medication (choice
B) could be due to other factors such as fear of side effects. The client sitting comfortably with eyes closed (choice
C) is subjective and may not always correlate with pain relief.
Therefore, choice D is the most objective and reliable indicator of morphine effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sedation. Metoclopramide is a medication that can cause sedation as a side effect. Following bowel surgery, sedation can affect the client's ability to recover and participate in post-operative activities. Muscle weakness (
A), tinnitus (
C), and peripheral edema (
D) are not commonly associated with metoclopramide use. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being postoperatively.
Question 3 of 5
How many mL/h should the nurse set the IV infusion pump to deliver half the total volume of lactated Ringer's (4,080 mL) in the first 8 hours?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
To deliver half of 4,080 mL in 8 hours, first calculate the total volume per hour: 4,080 mL / 8 hours = 510 mL/h. Half of this is 255 mL/h, making choice D the correct answer.
Choices A, B, and C are too low, while choice E is too high, as they do not deliver the required volume in the specified time frame.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspneWhich of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line medication for anaphylaxis, which is a severe allergic reaction that can present with symptoms such as anxiety, hypotension, and difficulty breathing. Administering epinephrine promptly can help reverse these symptoms by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening up airways, thus improving blood pressure and breathing. Diphenhydramine (
A) is an antihistamine that can be used as an adjunct therapy but is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Albuterol inhaler (
B) is used for bronchospasm and would not address the hypotension. Prednisone (
D) is a corticosteroid that is used for its anti-inflammatory effects but is not the first choice for acute anaphylaxis.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that a client with myasthenia gravis taking neostigmine is experiencing an adverse effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Miosis. Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis by increasing acetylcholine levels. Miosis, or pinpoint pupils, is a common adverse effect of cholinergic stimulation. Tachycardia (
A) is not typically associated with neostigmine use and can be a sign of sympathetic overactivity. Oliguria (
B) is not a common adverse effect of neostigmine and can be indicative of kidney issues. Xerostomia (
C) is dry mouth and is more commonly seen with anticholinergic medications.