ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive 2024 Exit Exam with NGN Questions
Extract:
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a closed head injury.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Determine the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. This is the priority action as it helps assess the client's level of consciousness and neurological status quickly. It guides further interventions and treatment decisions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (
B) or administering mannitol IV bolus (
C) may be needed but assessing neurological status comes first. Preparing for an MRI (
D) is important but not the initial step.
Extract:
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client following a motor-vehicle crash.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client is oriented times three. This indicates that the client is alert and aware of person, place, and time. This finding is crucial in assessing the client's mental status and cognitive function. Opening eyes to sound (
B) is a basic response but does not indicate orientation. Inability to obey commands (
C) suggests altered mental status. Withdrawing from pain (
D) may indicate a physical reflex rather than cognitive function. Overall, being oriented times three is the most comprehensive assessment of mental alertness and cognitive function.
Extract:
A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P.R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree atrioventricular block. This dysrhythmia is characterized by a delay in conduction at the atrioventricular node, causing a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 sec) on ECG. It is a benign condition and does not typically require treatment unless symptomatic.
Choices B and D are more serious dysrhythmias that have different ECG patterns and clinical implications. Complete heart block (
Choice
B) presents with a lack of conduction between the atria and ventricles, leading to a slow ventricular rate. Atrial fibrillation (
Choice
D) is characterized by rapid, irregular atrial depolarizations without effective atrial contractions. Premature atrial complexes (
Choice
C) are early ectopic atrial beats that appear as abnormal P waves on ECG but do not cause significant conduction delays.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following conditions in the child's medical history should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to many medical procedures due to the increased risk of complications such as bleeding or cardiovascular events. In this case, performing a procedure on a child with hypertension could pose significant risks to their health. Amputation (
A) is not necessarily a contraindication unless it directly affects the procedure site. Osteoarthritis (
B) may not directly impact the procedure. Primary glaucoma (
D) is not related to the procedure in question.
Extract:
A case manager is meeting with a client who asks about using alternative therapies to manage her rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the nurse should offer to review information to assist the patient in selecting a safe alternative practitioner, showing support and guidance.
Choice B is incorrect because it assumes the provider will inform the patient of therapies, not necessarily the nurse.
Choice C is incorrect as it lacks professional guidance and may lead to unsafe choices.
Choice D is incorrect as it suggests the patient can find remedies independently without professional advice.