ATI RN
ATI RN Custom 2023 Fall Exam 3 Questions
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 2 hr ago. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the firmness of the uterus (fundus) first. This is crucial in postpartum care to assess for uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By checking the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can determine if there is proper contraction and prevent excessive bleeding. Obtaining a type and crossmatch (
B) would be important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority. Administering oxytocin infusion (
C) is a common intervention for uterine atony but should come after assessing the uterus. Initiating oxygen therapy (
D) by nonrebreather mask is not directly related to the initial concern of uterine firmness.
Extract:
A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a pregnant woman about the signs and symptoms to be reported immediately to her health care provider.
Question 2 of 5
Which signs and symptoms would the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B, E, F
Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms to include are B, E, and F. Sudden leakage of fluid in the second trimester indicates possible preterm rupture of membranes. Lower abdominal pain with shoulder pain in the first trimester could suggest an ectopic pregnancy. Headache with visual changes in the third trimester may indicate preeclampsia. Nausea with vomiting in the first trimester is common and not necessarily concerning. Urinary frequency in the third trimester is expected due to the enlarged uterus. Backache in the second trimester is common due to the growing uterus and hormonal changes.
Extract:
A nurse is teaching about crib safety with the parent of a newborn.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib." This statement demonstrates understanding of safe sleep practices for infants, as it follows the recommendation to keep the baby's sleep environment free from loose bedding to reduce the risk of suffocation. Removing extra blankets helps prevent potential hazards.
Choice A is incorrect because placing a baby on their stomach for sleep increases the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
Choice C is incorrect as padding the mattress can also pose a suffocation risk.
Choice D is incorrect as the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends room-sharing but not bed-sharing for at least the first six months to reduce the risk of SIDS.
Extract:
A woman gives birth to a small infant with a malformed skull. The infant grows abnormally slowly and shows signs of substantial cognitive and intellectual deficits. The child also has facial abnormalities including a short nose and thin lip that become more striking as it develops.
Question 4 of 5
What might you expect to find in the mother's pregnancy history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic alcohol use. A mother's pregnancy history is crucial for assessing potential risks to both the mother and the fetus. Chronic alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol spectrum disorders. This can result in physical, behavioral, and cognitive issues in the child. It is important to identify this history early on to provide appropriate care and support.
Choices A, C, and E are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the mother's pregnancy history. Chronic cocaine use (
B) can also have serious consequences during pregnancy, but in this context, chronic alcohol use (
D) is the most relevant option.
Extract:
The client is being rushed into the labor and delivery unit.
Question 5 of 5
At which station would the nurse document the fetus immediately prior to birth? (Enter a numerical value)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would document the fetus immediately prior to birth at station 0. Station 0 corresponds to the level of the ischial spines, indicating the fetus is at the level of the maternal ischial spines and is ready to be born. Station -1 means the fetus is above the ischial spines, not yet engaged in the pelvis. Station 1 indicates the fetus is 1 cm below the ischial spines, not immediately prior to birth. Station 2 indicates the fetus is 2 cm below the ischial spines, also not immediately prior to birth.
Therefore, station 0 is the correct choice for documenting the fetus immediately prior to birth.