ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 Questions
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the second stage of labor. The nurse observes retraction of the fetal head against the maternal perineum as the head is birthed.
Question 1 of 5
Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is most likely experiencing shoulder dystocia. This is because shoulder dystocia occurs when the baby's shoulder gets stuck during delivery, which can lead to complications such as fetal distress and difficulty delivering the baby. Breech presentation, placenta previa, and uterine rupture are different conditions that do not involve the baby's shoulder being stuck. In breech presentation, the baby is positioned feet or buttocks first. Placenta previa is when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. Uterine rupture is a tear in the uterus. Each of these conditions presents with distinct symptoms and risks, none of which involve the baby's shoulder being stuck during delivery.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes late decelerations in the FHR.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to change the client's position (
Choice
A). This is important for assessing the client's condition, promoting comfort, and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers. Changing the client's position allows for better circulation and can help in improving respiratory function. This initial intervention is crucial in maintaining the client's overall well-being. Applying a fetal scalp electrode (
Choice
B) is not the priority unless indicated for fetal monitoring. Administering oxygen at a high flow rate (
Choice
C) is important but should come after addressing the client's positioning. Increasing the IV infusion rate (
Choice
D) may be necessary but should be done after the client's position is assessed and adjusted.
Extract:
A nurse has received an order to administer Morphine 5mg IV once immediately. The available concentration is 2.5 mg/mL.
Question 3 of 5
How many mL of morphine should the nurse prepare for administration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 2 mL. Morphine is usually available in concentrations of 10 mg/mL. If the prescribed dose is 20 mg, the nurse should prepare 2 mL (20 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 2 mL).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not match the calculated dose based on the concentration of morphine.
Extract:
A nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate to manage pre-eclampsia.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following observations should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 40 mL in 2 hours is less than the normal range (at least 30 mL/hour). This could indicate kidney dysfunction, a serious complication of pre-eclampsia, and should be reported.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a patient who is about to undergo a biophysical profile. The patient asks the nurse what aspects are evaluated during this test.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C, D, E
Rationale: Fetal motion, fetal breathing, and amniotic fluid volume are evaluated during a biophysical profile to assess fetal well-being. Fetal neck translucency and gender are not part of this test.