Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peak level. Peak level refers to the highest concentration of a drug in the blood after administration, typically measured when the drug has reached its maximum therapeutic effect. This level is crucial for determining the drug's efficacy and potential side effects.

Half-life (
B) is the time it takes for the drug concentration in the blood to reduce by half. Trough level (
C) is the lowest concentration of the drug in the blood before the next dose. Steady state (
D) is when the drug concentration remains constant over time with repeated dosing.
Therefore, peak level best describes the highest drug concentration post-administration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Absorption is the correct answer. Absorption refers to the process of a drug moving from its site of administration (e.g., the gastrointestinal tract) into the bloodstream. This is a crucial step for the drug to reach its target site and exert its pharmacological effects. Distribution (
A) occurs after absorption, where the drug is transported in the bloodstream to various tissues and organs. Metabolism (
B) is the process of the body breaking down the drug into different compounds, usually to facilitate its excretion. Excretion (
C) is the removal of the drug or its metabolites from the body, typically through urine or feces.
Therefore, absorption best describes the initial movement of the drug into the bloodstream.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Escitalopram belongs to the class of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs). This is because it works by specifically targeting the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin available for neurotransmission. SSRIs are commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mental health conditions. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) (
Choice
A) work by a different mechanism and have different side effect profiles. Beta-blockers (
Choice
B) are used to treat high blood pressure and heart conditions, not mental health disorders. Benzodiazepines (
Choice
C) are a class of medications used primarily for anxiety and insomnia, but they do not target serotonin reuptake. Hence, the correct answer is D, as it aligns with escitalopram's mechanism of action and therapeutic use.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relief of heartburn. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production, providing relief from symptoms such as heartburn. This outcome indicates that famotidine is working as intended by reducing acid levels in the stomach, leading to relief of heartburn.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action of famotidine. Cessation of diarrhea, passage of flatus, and absence of constipation are not typically associated with the use of an H2 receptor antagonist like famotidine.
Therefore, the relief of heartburn is the most appropriate outcome to indicate that famotidine is therapeutic in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: guaifenesin (Mucinex). Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps loosen and thin mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up. This is beneficial for a patient with a productive cough as it helps clear the airways and improve breathing.

A: dextromethorphan (Robitussin) is a cough suppressant and would not be appropriate for a productive cough as it inhibits the cough reflex.
B: fluticasone (Flonase) is a nasal corticosteroid used for allergies and nasal congestion, not for cough.
C: pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) is a decongestant that helps relieve nasal congestion, not suitable for a productive cough.
E, F, G are non-existent options.