ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Quiz Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Upon entering the client's room at the beginning of a shift and throughout the shift,the nurse assesses the client. The nurse considers the client's plan of care and response to nursing interventions during the assessments. What type of assessment is the nurse performing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ongoing assessment: Ongoing assessments are continuous evaluations performed throughout the nurse's shift to monitor the client's status, response to interventions, and to adjust the care plan as needed. Focused assessment: A focused assessment is targeted on a specific problem or area of concern, rather than a general or comprehensive evaluation. Emergency assessment: An emergency assessment is rapid and focuses on identifying life-threatening conditions or urgent needs. It is not a routine, ongoing assessment. Comprehensive assessment: A comprehensive assessment is an in-depth evaluation of the client's overall health status, usually performed upon admission or during initial evaluation. It is not typically repeated throughout the shift.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is bleeding profusely from a stab wound is brought to the emergency department. Which type of assessment is most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Emergency: This type of assessment is rapid and focuses on identifying and treating life-threatening conditions immediately, such as profuse bleeding from a stab wound. Time-lapse: This assessment compares current client data to previous data to assess progress, which is not appropriate for an acute, life-threatening situation. Focused: While this is a detailed assessment of a specific problem area, an emergency assessment is needed first for immediate threats to life. Initial: This is a comprehensive assessment typically conducted when a client first enters a healthcare setting, but in an emergency, the focus shifts to immediate lifesaving measures.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is creating a discharge plan. Which of the following nursing statements indicates the nurse understands when discharge planning should be implemented?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: I will begin $48 \mathrm{hr}$ before the client's discharge.' Waiting until 48 hours before discharge does not provide enough time for thorough planning, education, or addressing potential needs after discharge. 'I will begin once the client's insurance company approves discharge coverage.' Discharge planning should not depend solely on insurance approval. It needs to be proactive and begin earlier to ensure comprehensive planning and education. 'I will begin once the client's discharge order is written.' Starting discharge planning only after the discharge order is written does not allow adequate time for preparation and may result in rushed or incomplete planning. 'I will begin upon the client's admission to the facility.' Discharge planning should start at admission. Early planning ensures that all aspects of post-discharge care are considered and allows ample time for education, coordination, and addressing potential barriers to successful discharge.
Question 4 of 5
The adult child of an older adult calls the nurse practitioner to report that the parent is becoming very confused after dark. What is this type of confusion named?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cognitive dysfunction: This is a broad term that includes various types of cognitive impairment. Alzheimer's disease: This is a specific type of dementia, but it doesn't specifically describe the timing of confusion. Sundowning syndrome: This term describes increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening. It's commonly seen in individuals with dementia. Night-time confusion: This is a general term and doesn't specifically relate to the characteristic pattern of sundowning.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the nurse plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sheepskin heel pad: A sheepskin heel pad provides cushioning to prevent pressure ulcers but does not prevent plantar flexion contractures as it does not keep the foot in a neutral position. Abduction pillow: An abduction pillow is used to maintain hip abduction and alignment, typically after hip surgery. It does not address foot positioning or prevent plantar flexion. Footboard: A footboard helps maintain the feet in dorsiflexion, preventing plantar flexion contractures. It keeps the feet at a 90-degree angle to the legs, which is essential for preventing contractures. Trochanter roll: A trochanter roll is used to maintain the alignment of the hips and prevent external rotation of the legs. It does not prevent plantar flexion contractures.