ATI RN
ATI NURS 340 Leadership and Public Health Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The public health nurse understands that under police power, the states can do which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because under police power, states have the authority to enforce public health policies to protect the community. Placing someone on house arrest for non-compliance with TB medication helps prevent the spread of infectious diseases.
Choice A is incorrect because allowing patients to refuse medications can pose a risk to public health.
Choice C is incorrect as advance directives relate to healthcare decision-making, not police power.
Choice D is incorrect because arresting someone for using illegal drugs is a criminal justice matter, not directly related to public health enforcement.
Question 2 of 5
The public health nurse understands the E. coli 0157:H7 is dangerous because it is hemorrhagic. The nurse knows that the greatest risk factor is which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petting zoos. E. coli 0157:H7 is commonly associated with fecal contamination, which can occur in petting zoos due to close contact with animals. The bacteria can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces, leading to infection. Poultry (
A) is not the greatest risk factor for E. coli 0157:H7 as it is more associated with Salmonella. Water parks (
B) and carrots (
D) are not common sources of E. coli 0157:H7 transmission. The key is understanding the potential for fecal contamination in petting zoos, making it the highest risk factor for contracting E. coli 0157:H7.
Question 3 of 5
The newly hired public health nurse understands that which of the following is an example of moral distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A
Rationale: Moral distress occurs when one knows the morally right action to take but is unable to do so due to constraints. In this scenario, the nurse has the knowledge and skills to advocate for the patient, but lacks the authority to act. This internal conflict causes moral distress as the nurse feels compelled to act in the patient's best interest but is unable to do so, leading to psychological and emotional turmoil.
Summary of other choices:
B: This scenario describes a situation where there may be regret or guilt for a decision made, but it does not align with moral distress, which involves the inability to act on one's moral beliefs.
C: Having the authority to override a physician's order does not typically lead to moral distress since it involves a decision-making process rather than a conflict between knowing the right action and being unable to carry it out.
D: Having the knowledge and skill set for culturally competent care is important but does not directly relate to moral distress, which pert
Question 4 of 5
A nurse administers an incorrect medication to a client. Following an assessment of the client, the nurse determines that the client has experienced no untoward effects as a result of the medication. The nurse does not complete an incident report because no harm came to the client. Which of the following ethical principles did the nurse violate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Veracity. Veracity refers to truthfulness and honesty. By not completing an incident report, the nurse failed to be truthful about the error that occurred. Even though the client did not experience harm, it is important to report any errors for transparency and accountability. This helps to identify system weaknesses and prevent future errors. Autonomy (
B) relates to respecting the client's right to make decisions. Beneficence (
C) involves acting in the client's best interest. Confidentiality (
D) pertains to protecting the client's privacy. In this scenario, the key issue is the nurse's truthfulness about the error, making veracity the principle violated.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following infectious disease interventions best represents the use of secondary prevention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because requiring health care workers to have a tuberculosis skin test or chest X-ray is an example of secondary prevention. This is because it aims to detect tuberculosis in its early stages before symptoms appear, helping to prevent the spread of the disease to others. A: Encouraging clients with HIV to use condoms is a form of primary prevention to reduce the risk of contracting HIV. C: Health care workers receiving annual vaccinations for influenza is a form of primary prevention to reduce the risk of getting the flu. D: Giving medications to clients with HIV to improve immunological response is a form of tertiary prevention aimed at managing the disease and its complications.