ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Final Exam moitoso Questions
Extract:
Nurse screening for postpartum depression (PPD).
Question 1 of 5
The nurse working in a clinic often screens her patients for postpartum depression (PPD). Identify the differences between postpartum depression and postpartum blues.
| Observation | Postpartum Depression | Postpartum Blues |
|---|---|---|
| Major differences occur within the first two weeks postpartum | ||
| Symptoms disappear without medical intervention | ||
| Unable to safely care for self and/or baby | ||
| May require antidepressants | ||
| Occurs within the first 12 months postpartum |
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: Postpartum blues resolve within two weeks and require no intervention, while PPD can persist up to 12 months, impair self/baby care, and may need antidepressants.
Extract:
Postpartum client with boggy fundus displaced to the right.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and finds the fundus boggy and displaced to the right. Based on these findings, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A boggy, displaced fundus suggests bladder distention, and assisting the client to void can relieve this, aiding uterine contraction and reducing hemorrhage risk.
Extract:
28-year-old, Gravida 3 Para 2, chronic hypertension, gestational diabetes, vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery, boggy fundus, heavy lochia, oxytocin infusion, BP 144/92, temperature 100.4°F.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client in the fourth stage of labor after a vaginal delivery in the labor and delivery unit. Complete the following sentence using the list of options: The client is at highest risk for developing ___ due to ___.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heavy lochia with clots indicates postpartum hemorrhage risk, likely due to uterine atony.
Extract:
28-year-old, 38 weeks gestation, decreased fetal movement, FHR 140 bpm, moderate variability, no accelerations or decelerations.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old pregnant female client at 38 weeks gestation who arrived to the OB triage unit with complaints of decreased fetal movement. The nurse assesses the NonStress Test (NST) and documents the results as ___. The nurse contacts the provider and reports the NST results. The nurse anticipates an order for a ___.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A non-reactive NST (no accelerations) prompts a biophysical profile to further assess fetal well-being.
Extract:
38-year-old multigravida at 36 weeks, BP 140/90, pulse 80, respiratory rate 16, suspected preeclampsia.
Question 5 of 5
A 38-year-old multigravida returns to the clinic for a routine prenatal visit at 36 weeks gestation. Assessment findings include: blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg; pulse, 80 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min. The nurse suspects preeclampsia. What additional finding would the nurse assess for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, indicating kidney involvement alongside elevated blood pressure.