ATI RN
ATI n200 Pharmacology Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse understands that a client who has had a bone marrow aspiration to assist in the diagnosis of anaemia requires additional teaching when they state:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because aspirin is a blood thinner that can increase the risk of bleeding at the bone marrow aspiration site. Giving aspirin after the procedure could lead to excessive bleeding and complications. A is incorrect because bone marrow aspiration pain is not typically similar to a toothache. B is correct as the procedure should be sterile to prevent infection. C is correct as the puncture site should be monitored for bleeding or infection. Providing a detailed rationale helps reinforce the importance of accurate information for the client's safety and understanding.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following actions should a nurse plan for when providing care for a client diagnosed with thrombocytopenia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid needle sticks or other invasive procedures as much as possible. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Needle sticks and invasive procedures can cause bleeding complications in these patients.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to minimize these procedures to prevent bleeding episodes. Holding stool softeners or laxatives (choice
B) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia care. Encouraging vigorous tooth brushing with a soft bristle toothbrush (choice
C) can increase the risk of gum bleeding in these patients. Obtaining a core temperature every 8 hours (choice
D) is important for monitoring fever but not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse caring for the client diagnosed with sickle cell crisis places priority on which specific goal(s) prior to discharge? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: The correct answers are C, D, and E. Prioritizing oxygenation and perfusion ensures cellular and metabolic needs are met, which is crucial in sickle cell crisis. Preventing or minimizing complications is essential to improve the client's outcome. Managing pain is vital for comfort and overall well-being.
Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration.
Choice B is less crucial compared to oxygenation, complication prevention, and pain management.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse recognizes that which diagnostic test is used to detect the most common cause of chronic iron deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stool for occult blood. This test is used to detect gastrointestinal bleeding, the most common cause of chronic iron deficiency anemia. Blood loss in the gastrointestinal tract leads to iron deficiency over time. Bone marrow aspiration (
A) is used to diagnose blood disorders but not the direct cause of anemia. Vitamin B2 level (
B) is not related to iron deficiency anemia. Schelling's test (
D) is not a recognized diagnostic test for iron deficiency anemia.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the chart of a client with a diagnosis of unstable angina. Which laboratory test(s) result(s) should the nurse recognize as an Indication of heart damage? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Correct Answer: B,D
Rationale: The correct answers are B (Elevated troponins) and D (Elevated CK-M
B). Elevated troponins indicate heart muscle damage, specifically myocardial injury. CK-MB is an enzyme released when there is damage to heart muscle cells. Both troponins and CK-MB are used as cardiac markers to assess heart damage in conditions like unstable angina. Increased platelet count (
A) is not a direct indicator of heart damage. Decreased homocysteine levels (
C) are not specifically related to heart damage in the context of unstable angina. Decreased alkaline phosphatase (ALT) (E) is a liver enzyme and does not directly reflect heart damage.