ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn Updated 2023 Questions
Extract:
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has a Clostridium difficile infection.
Question 1 of 5
The nurse should initiate which of the following types of isolation precautions for the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact. Contact isolation precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact. This includes wearing gloves, gowns, and practicing proper hand hygiene. For this client, contact precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of infectious agents through direct physical contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Droplet precautions (
A) are used for infections spread through respiratory droplets, airborne precautions (
B) are for infections transmitted through tiny particles in the air, and protective environment (
C) is used to protect immunocompromised patients from outside pathogens. In this case, contact precautions are the most appropriate to prevent the spread of infection.
Extract:
A client who is taking an oral contraceptive.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings to the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persistent headaches. Headaches can indicate serious conditions like hypertension or preeclampsia, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Breast tenderness, vaginal itching, and painful intercourse are common discomforts during pregnancy but typically not urgent issues. Reporting persistent headaches promptly can ensure timely intervention and prevent potential risks to the client and fetus.
Extract:
A client who has chosen a diaphragm for birth control.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insert the diaphragm up to 6 hr before intercourse. This instruction is correct because diaphragms should be inserted at least 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for it to be effective in preventing pregnancy. Removing it too soon after intercourse (choice
A) would not provide adequate protection. Washing the diaphragm with detergent soap (choice
C) can damage the diaphragm and increase the risk of infection. Applying a vaginal lubricant (choice
D) may interfere with the diaphragm's effectiveness and should be avoided.
Extract:
A client who is in labor and experiences abruptio placenta.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine tenderness. In the context of pregnancy, uterine tenderness may indicate a potential issue such as uterine infection or preterm labor. It is important for the nurse to assess this finding further to ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Hypertension (choice
A) may indicate preeclampsia, fetal tachycardia (choice
C) may suggest fetal distress, and leukorrhea (choice
D) is a common finding in pregnancy.
Choices E, F, and G are not provided.
Extract:
A newborn who was born at 39 weeks of gestation and is 36 hours old.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C,D,F
Rationale: The nurse should report findings that indicate potential issues requiring provider intervention. Coombs test result (
C) is crucial for detecting autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Abnormal sclera color (
D) may indicate liver dysfunction or jaundice. Intake and output (F) are essential for monitoring fluid balance. Glucose level (
A) is important but typically not an urgent concern. Head assessment finding (
B) may be relevant, but it depends on the specific abnormality. Heart rate (E) and mucous membrane assessment (G) are vital but generally do not require immediate provider notification.