Questions 56

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ATI N200 Med Surg Exam 5 Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The nurse must give 25 micrograms of fentanyl IVP X 1 dose. Fentanyl is available in an ampule 100 micrograms per 2mL. How many mL will the nurse give for the correct dose? round to the nearest tenth. Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros.

Correct Answer: 0.5 mL

Rationale: Volume = 25 mcg / (100 mcg / 2 mL) = 0.5 mL.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is teaching an adult client with Type 1 diabetes that a primary cause of the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lack of insulin in Type 1 diabetes leads to fat breakdown, producing ketones and causing DKA.

Question 3 of 5

The client diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has a new prescription for clopidogrel. What information should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel increases bleeding risk, and black or bloody stools indicate potential bleeding requiring immediate attention.

Question 4 of 5

A client with Type 2 diabetes is brought into the emergency room in an unresponsive state. A diagnosis of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is made. The nurse prepares for the administration of which initial therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 0.9% saline IV corrects dehydration and dilutes high glucose levels, the initial priority in HHS.

Question 5 of 5

A client on glipizide, a sulfonylurea, reports to the nurse feeling anxious, sweaty & has a headache. The nurse's initial action is to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Checking the blood glucose level will provide immediate information about whether the client is experiencing hypoglycemia, guiding appropriate treatment.

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