ATI RN
RN ATI Comprehensive Assessment Exam Retake 2023 V2 Questions
Extract:
Nurses' Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement. Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs
Day 1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98.4°F)
Heart rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min
BP 162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results
Day 1, 1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear)
Color yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03)
Leukocyte esterase negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative)
Ketones negative (negative)
Crystals negative (negative)
Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative)
WBC 5 (0 to 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2)
RBC casts none (none)
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
Correct Answer: A, B, C, F
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A, B, C, F
Rationale:
A: Urine protein indicates possible preeclampsia, a serious prenatal complication.
B: Decreased fetal activity can signal fetal distress or other issues.
C: Abnormal blood pressure levels may indicate gestational hypertension or preeclampsia.
F: Headaches can be a symptom of preeclampsia, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications.
Incorrect
Choices:
D: Urine ketones usually indicate dehydration or inadequate nutrition, not a prenatal complication.
E: Respiratory rate is not typically used to assess prenatal complications.
G: Gravida/parity information is important but does not directly indicate a prenatal complication.
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing an in service about client evacuation during a fire. Which of the following clients should the nurse instruct the staff to evacuate first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Evacuating a client who uses a wheelchair and is confused should be the priority because they have limited mobility and may not be able to self-evacuate safely. Confusion may lead to disorientation during an emergency, increasing the risk of harm. Additionally, wheelchair users may require assistance with moving downstairs or through narrow passageways.
Choice B is incorrect as a bedridden client wearing a hearing aid can still be safely evacuated with assistance.
Choice C is incorrect because an ambulatory client receiving oxygen can still walk and evacuate, although oxygen tanks should be taken into consideration.
Choice D is incorrect as a client in balance suspension traction may be stable and not in immediate danger compared to the wheelchair-bound and confused client.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fetal anemia. Fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min) could indicate fetal distress. Fetal anemia decreases oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to compensatory bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia (
A) typically causes fetal tachycardia. Chorioamnionitis (
B) and maternal fever (
D) usually cause fetal tachycardia due to infection. Summarily, fetal anemia is the most likely cause of fetal bradycardia compared to the other options.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse enters a client's room and sees a small fire in the client's bathroom. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should take.
Correct Answer: B, A, C, D
Rationale: B: Activating the facility's fire alarm system is crucial to alert other staff members and ensure the safety of all individuals in the building. A: Transporting the client to another area is necessary to move them away from the fire hazard. C: Closing windows and doors helps contain the fire and prevent it from spreading. D: Using the fire extinguisher should only be done if it's safe to do so and if the nurse has been trained in its proper use.
Choices E, F, and G are incorrect as they do not prioritize the immediate safety of the client and others in the building.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reading a tuberculin skin test for a client who received a purified protein derivative test 72 hr ago. Which of the following findings indicates a positive test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An induration measuring 10 mm. This indicates a positive test for tuberculosis. A positive PPD test is determined by the size of the induration, not erythema. An induration of 10 mm or greater at 72 hours is considered positive for most individuals, indicating exposure to TB.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for a positive PPD test. An induration of 5 mm is considered positive only in certain high-risk populations, such as individuals with HIV or recent contacts with TB. Reddened areas do not determine a positive PPD test; only the size of the induration does.