Questions 168

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ATI Med Surg Nursing 300 day Exam Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Weighing the client establishes a baseline to monitor fluid retention, critical in heart failure management.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is preparing to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells for a client with a hemoglobin of 5.4 g/dL. (normal Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL; Male: 14-17.3 g/dL). Which IV site should the nurse use?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A 20-gauge catheter infusing normal saline is appropriate for blood transfusion, avoiding interference from other medications.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse would assess the client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) for which manifestation of the disorder?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Petechiae result from microvascular bleeding in DIC due to clotting factor consumption.

Question 4 of 5

A client presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of a 'racing' heart and nervousness. The client also admits to a history of cocaine abuse. The cardiac monitor displays the rhythm below. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform?

Question Image

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Initial assessment of vital signs and stability is critical before interventions, especially with cocaine-related tachycardia.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is evaluating the following rhythm strip on a client in the telemetry unit. The client is alert and oriented but complains of slight nausea after eating breakfast. What is the nurse's best action?

Question Image

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sinus tachycardia with mild symptoms warrants continued monitoring and assessment rather than immediate intervention.

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