ATI RN
ATI nurs 180 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a dry non-productive cough associated with an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following drugs is an alternative to ACE inhibitors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: losartan (Cozaar). Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (AR
B) which is an alternative to ACE inhibitors in patients experiencing a dry cough. ARBs work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that can cause blood vessels to constrict. This alternative is preferred in patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to side effects such as cough.
A: Hydralazine and B: metoprolol are not alternatives to ACE inhibitors, as they belong to different drug classes (direct vasodilator and beta-blocker, respectively).
C: Furosemide is a loop diuretic and does not have the same mechanism of action as ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
In summary, losartan is the correct alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients experiencing a dry cough, while the other options are not suitable replacements due to differences in drug class and mechanism of action.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for the treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nurse will include which black box warning (BBW) in the discharge education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This drug has a black box warning for causing tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which carry a black box warning due to the risk of tendon rupture and tendonitis. This warning is important for the nurse to include in discharge education to alert the client about this serious potential side effect. Tendon rupture can occur during or after treatment, particularly in older adults and those taking corticosteroids. The other choices (A, C,
D) are incorrect because there is no direct association between ciprofloxacin and endometrial cancers, thromboembolic events, or thrombocytopenia. It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize educating the client about the most relevant and serious black box warning associated with the medication to ensure client safety and understanding.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
Rationale:
1. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, not dissolving existing clots.
2. The client already has a DVT, so heparin's primary role is to prevent the clot from getting larger and prevent new clots from forming.
3.
To dissolve an existing clot, thrombolytic therapy such as alteplase is typically used, not heparin.
4. Monitoring PT/INR levels (
Choice
A) is more relevant for warfarin therapy, not heparin.
5. It takes heparin a few hours to reach therapeutic levels, not 2 to 3 days (
Choice
B).
6. Clots do not immediately dissolve after the first dose of heparin (
Choice
D).
Question 4 of 5
A client exposed to anthrax has presented to the healthcare setting. Which of the following medications below is the treatment for this biological exposure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ciprofloxacin (Cipro). Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic effective against anthrax bacteria. It inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis, preventing further growth and replication. It is the first-line treatment for anthrax exposure due to its broad-spectrum coverage and high efficacy. Amoxicillin/clavulanate (
B) is a beta-lactam antibiotic and is not effective against anthrax. Nystatin (
C) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not bacterial infections like anthrax. Metronidazole (
D) is used for bacterial and parasitic infections, but not specifically for anthrax.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the administration of nitroglycerin. Which of the following routes of administration has the most rapid onset for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sublingual. Nitroglycerin is rapidly absorbed through the mucous membranes under the tongue, bypassing the first-pass metabolism in the liver, leading to a quick onset of action within 1-3 minutes.
Topical ointment (
A) has a slower onset as it requires absorption through the skin. Transdermal patch (
C) delivers nitroglycerin slowly over 24 hours, not providing rapid onset. Sustained-release (
D) formulations release the medication gradually over time, resulting in a delayed onset compared to sublingual administration.