ATI RN
ATI Nurs 100 Fundamental Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is administering a controlled substance that falls into the category of Schedule I. Which of the following displays the appropriate abuse potential for Schedule I drugs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highest abuse potential. Schedule I drugs are classified as having no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. This means they have the highest abuse potential among all drug schedules. Other choices are incorrect because Schedule I drugs are not associated with lowest (
A), moderate (
B), or mild (
C) abuse potential due to their highly addictive nature and lack of recognized medical benefits.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) and reports having shortness of breath and swelling in his lower extremities. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client has crackles in his lungs and an elevated blood pressure. The nurse should suspect which of the following based on the client’s manifestations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypervolemia. The client's symptoms of shortness of breath, lower extremity swelling, crackles in the lungs, and elevated blood pressure are indicative of fluid volume overload, which is characteristic of hypervolemia in ESKD patients. The kidneys in ESKD are unable to properly regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. This excess fluid can result in symptoms like pulmonary congestion (crackles in lungs), edema (lower extremity swelling), and elevated blood pressure. Hyperkalemia (
A) is characterized by high potassium levels and would present with different symptoms. Hyponatremia (
B) is low sodium levels and would not typically cause crackles in the lungs or elevated blood pressure. Hypovolemia (
D) is low fluid volume and would not align with the client's symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client prior to the administration of morphine. The nurse should recognize which assessment is the priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory rate. Prioritizing respiratory rate is crucial before administering morphine because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Monitoring for any signs of respiratory distress or decreased respiratory rate is essential to prevent potential respiratory complications. The other choices are not as critical in this scenario:
B) Urine output,
C) Bowel sounds, and
D) Pupil reaction are important assessments but do not directly relate to the immediate risk associated with morphine administration. Thus, assessing respiratory rate takes precedence in ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
The patient has just been started on an enteral feeding and has developed diarrhea after being on the feeding for 2 hours. What does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of the diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Formula intolerance. The development of diarrhea shortly after starting enteral feeding suggests that the patient may be intolerant to the formula. Formula intolerance can occur due to various reasons such as an individual's inability to digest certain components of the formula, sensitivity to specific ingredients, or a rapid change in feeding composition. This can lead to gastrointestinal upset, including diarrhea.
Other choices are less likely in this scenario:
A: Clostridium difficile is a common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea, but the patient has just started enteral feeding and not antibiotics.
B: Antibiotic therapy would not typically lead to immediate diarrhea after 2 hours of starting enteral feeding.
D: Bacterial contamination would usually take longer to cause symptoms and would not be expected to manifest so quickly.
In summary, the rapid onset of diarrhea after initiating enteral feeding points more towards formula intolerance as the likely cause in this case.
Question 5 of 5
Which oxygen delivery device can deliver 40-60% FIO2 and is from 5-8 L/min?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Step 1: Calculate oxygen delivery: With 5-8 L/min flow rate, a simple face mask can deliver 40-60% FIO2.
Step 2: Nasal cannula delivers up to 44% FIO2 at 6 L/min. Incorrect.
Step 3: Aerosol mask delivers variable FIO2, not consistently 40-60%. Incorrect.
Step 4: Face tent is not designed for precise FIO2 delivery and is not typically used for 40-60% FIO2. Incorrect.
Step 5:
Therefore, the correct answer is B, as it meets the specific criteria of delivering 40-60% FIO2 at 5-8 L/min.