ATI RN
ATI Custom OB Exam 1 Summer 2023 Questions
Extract:
Client at 38 weeks of gestation, heavy red vaginal bleeding without contractions, no distress, can feel baby moving
Question 1 of 5
The client should undergo an ultrasound to determine which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Location of the placenta. An ultrasound can determine the exact position of the placenta in relation to the cervix, which is crucial for assessing the risk of placenta previa or other complications during pregnancy. This information guides healthcare providers in making appropriate decisions regarding delivery methods.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Fetal lung maturity is usually assessed through other methods like amniocentesis.
B: Frequency and duration of contractions are usually monitored through external monitoring devices.
D: Rh incompatibility is typically detected through blood tests, not ultrasound.
Extract:
Client in second trimester, new diagnosis of gestational diabetes
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reducing the exercise schedule to 3 days a week goes against the goal of managing diabetes, which typically requires consistent physical activity. Regular exercise helps control blood sugar levels, improves insulin sensitivity, and promotes overall health.
Choices A, B, and D demonstrate an understanding of diabetes management and medication adherence, indicating no need for further teaching in those areas.
Extract:
Client pregnant, taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anemia, reports black stools, no abdominal pain or cramping
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides an appropriate explanation for the situation. Iron is known to cause dark stools due to its breakdown in the digestive system. This response shows understanding and reassures the patient.
Choice A is relevant but doesn't address the specific issue.
Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests an unnecessary visit to the emergency room.
Choice D is a general invitation without addressing the concern.
Extract:
Client might have a hydatidiform mole
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive uterine enlargement. This finding is important to monitor in a pregnant client as it may indicate conditions such as multiple gestation, hydramnios, or molar pregnancy, which could pose risks to both the mother and baby. Monitoring uterine size helps in assessing fetal growth and development. Whitish vaginal discharge (
A) could be a normal finding or indicate a yeast infection, while fetal heart rate irregularities (
B) would be monitored using fetal monitoring, not uterine size. Rapidly dropping hCG levels (
D) could suggest a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy, but it is not directly related to uterine enlargement.
Extract:
Postpartum client, large amount of lochia rubra with several clots on perineal pad
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to check the client's fundus. This is prioritized because assessing the fundus helps determine the status of postpartum uterine involution and can indicate any signs of hemorrhage. By checking the fundus first, the nurse can promptly identify and address any abnormalities or complications. Measuring vital signs and feeling for a full bladder are important assessments but come after checking the fundus. Requesting a provider perform a vaginal examination is not the first action to take unless there are specific concerns or indications for it.