ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Select the 5 findings that can cause delayed wound healing.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: The correct answer includes all factors that can contribute to delayed wound healing. A: Diabetes mellitus impairs wound healing due to vascular and neuropathic complications. B: Hyperlipidemia can lead to poor circulation and impair the immune response. C: Wound infection prolongs the inflammatory phase and delays healing. D: Decreased pedal perfusion compromises blood flow necessary for tissue repair. E: Elevated fasting blood glucose levels hinder immune function and collagen synthesis. These factors collectively contribute to delayed wound healing. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly impact wound healing in the same manner as the selected options.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse plan to monitor for and report to the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Slurred speech. Slurred speech can be a sign of a potential stroke, which can occur in patients with atrial fibrillation due to the risk of blood clots forming in the heart. This finding should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring for slurred speech helps in early detection and prompt management of a potential stroke.
Other choices such as A: Irregular pulse, B: Persistent fatigue, and C: Dependent edema are common in patients with heart failure and atrial fibrillation but are not immediate concerns requiring urgent intervention like slurred speech indicating a potential stroke.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who has sustained severe burn injuries in a grease fire. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse should estimate that the client has burned the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.
Correct Answer: 72
Rationale: The Rule of Nines is a method used to estimate the total body surface area (TBS
A) burned in a patient with severe burns. According to this rule, each major body part represents a specific percentage of the TBSA. In an adult, the head accounts for 9%, each upper extremity is 9% (18% total), the front of the trunk is 18%, the back of the trunk is 18%, each lower extremity is 18% (36% total), and the genital area is 1%.
Therefore, if a client has sustained severe burn injuries in a grease fire, the nurse should estimate that the client has burned approximately 72% of their TBSA. This calculation is crucial in determining the severity of the burns and guiding appropriate treatment. The correct answer is 72 because it reflects the accurate estimation of the TBSA burned using the Rule of Nines. The other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the standard percentages
Question 4 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of valvular heart disease is being considered for mechanical valve replacement. Which circumstance is essential to assess before the surgery is performed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The ability to comply with anticoagulant therapy for life. This is essential because mechanical valve replacement requires lifelong anticoagulant therapy to prevent clot formation. Noncompliance can lead to serious complications such as thromboembolism or valve failure. Assessing the client's understanding, willingness, and ability to adhere to this therapy is crucial for successful outcomes.
Other options are incorrect because:
B: Body image problems are important but not essential before surgery.
C: Physical demands of lifestyle are relevant but not crucial for valve replacement.
D: Participation in cardiac rehab is beneficial post-surgery but not essential before.
Overall, the ability to comply with anticoagulant therapy is the most critical factor to assess preoperatively.
Question 5 of 5
A client seeks medical attention for intermittent signs and symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of Raynaud’s disease. The nurse should assess the trigger of these signs/symptoms by asking which?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Does drinking coffee or ingesting chocolate seem related to the episodes? This question is relevant because caffeine and chocolate are known triggers for Raynaud's disease due to their vasoconstrictive properties. By asking about these specific triggers, the nurse can gather important information to help identify potential causes of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because exposure to heat typically alleviates symptoms of Raynaud's disease rather than causing them.
Choice C is irrelevant as Raynaud's symptoms typically occur when the individual is exposed to cold or experiencing stress, not while asleep.
Choice D is also incorrect as injuries limiting activity levels are not directly related to Raynaud's disease triggers.