ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive 2024 Exit Exam with NGN Questions
Extract:
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client.
Question 1 of 5
Select the 3 statements the nurse should include in the teaching.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A is important as vomiting and diarrhea can lead to dehydration. B is crucial for liver health and overall well-being. C is essential for heart health and maintaining a healthy weight. The other choices are incorrect. D can worsen symptoms and interfere with medication. E may not be suitable for certain health conditions and can lead to weight gain. No information is provided for options F and G.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following statements by the client indicate an understanding of the discharge teaching? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: The correct statements (A, D, E) demonstrate an understanding of discharge teaching. A shows awareness of dietary recommendations post-discharge. D indicates knowledge of abnormal urine color as a reason to notify the provider. E reflects comprehension of incorporating fish in the diet for health benefits. The incorrect choices (B,
C) suggest misconceptions. B is inaccurate as pale bowel movements may indicate a liver issue. C may be harmful as coffee can interfere with medication.
Extract:
A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a thoracentesis.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instruct the client to avoid coughing during the procedure. This is crucial because coughing can disrupt the procedure, leading to potential complications. Coughing can cause movement that may interfere with the accuracy of the procedure or cause injury to the client. Positioning the client on the affected side (
A) for 4 hours following the procedure is not necessary and can lead to discomfort. Informing the client that they will be NPO for 6 hours prior to the procedure (
C) may not be relevant depending on the type of procedure. Placing the client in the prone position during the procedure (
D) can be risky and uncomfortable for the client.
Extract:
A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old toddler.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nontender, protruding abdomen. This finding is expected in a child with kwashiorkor, a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition. The nontender, protruding abdomen is due to fluid accumulation in the abdomen (ascites) and the lack of muscle mass. This is a key characteristic of kwashiorkor. The other choices are incorrect because:
A) Head circumference exceeding chest circumference is not a typical finding in children;
B) Fontanels should be soft and flat in infants, not palpable;
C) Natural loss of deciduous teeth occurs around age 6-12 years, not in infancy.
Extract:
A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Document the client's condition every 15 min. This guideline is crucial to monitor the client's well-being, detect any changes promptly, and ensure the effectiveness of the restraint. Removing the restraint every 4 hours (choice
A) can compromise the client's safety and defeat the purpose of using restraints. Requesting a PRN restraint prescription for aggressive clients (choice
C) may lead to overuse of restraints without proper assessment. Attaching restraints to the bed's side rails (choice
D) can increase the risk of injury and is not recommended. Regular documentation is essential in ensuring the client's safety and well-being.