ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive 2023 With NGN 180 Questions And Answers Questions
Extract:
The charge nurse on a medical surgical unit is assisting with the emergency response plan following an external disaster in the community.
Question 1 of 5
In anticipation of multiple client admissions, which of the following current clients should the nurse recommend for early discharge?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The client one day postoperative following a vertebroplasty can be recommended for early discharge as this procedure is typically short-stay and does not require extended monitoring. The client is likely stable and can continue recovery at home.
Choice B is incorrect because a client with pneumonia and a fever of 101°F requires continued IV antibiotics and monitoring to ensure resolution of infection and fever reduction.
Choice C is incorrect as a client with a recent TIA requires further evaluation and monitoring to prevent recurrent strokes and assess for potential complications.
Choice D is incorrect because a client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation requiring continuous cardiac monitoring should not be discharged early as they need close monitoring and management to prevent complications like stroke or heart failure.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and tells the nurse, “I feel like an elephant is sitting on my chest.†The client is weak and unable to walk.
Question 2 of 5
After the nurse indicates chest pain protocol, which of the following is the priority diagnostic test?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chest X-ray. When a patient presents with chest pain, a chest X-ray is crucial to evaluate for any acute cardiopulmonary conditions like pneumonia, pneumothorax, or aortic dissection. It helps identify any immediate life-threatening issues that require prompt intervention. PT and INR (
A) are coagulation tests not typically indicated for acute chest pain. A 12-lead ECG (
B) is important but usually done after the chest X-ray to assess for cardiac abnormalities. D-dimer test (
D) is used to rule out pulmonary embolism, but it is not the priority test in the initial evaluation of chest pain.
Extract:
A nurse is providing care for a client following a thoracentesis.
Question 3 of 5
If the client develops a pneumothorax, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain on inhalation chest pain that worsens when you breathe or pleuritic pain. A pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. When air enters this space, it creates pressure, leading to sharp chest pain that worsens with breathing (pleuritic pain). This occurs because the air-filled space prevents the lungs from expanding fully during inhalation, causing discomfort. Stridor (choice
A) is a high-pitched sound indicating upper airway obstruction, not typically associated with a pneumothorax. Friction rub (choice
C) indicates inflammation of the pleura, not specific to a pneumothorax. Bradycardia (choice
D) is unlikely in pneumothorax, as it is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the heart rate.
Extract:
A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride 4mcg/kg/min via continuous infusion. Available is dopamine hydrochloride in a solution of 800 milligrams in a 250ML bag. The client weighs 80 kilograms.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should set the IV infusion to deliver how many ml/hr?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 11.0 mL/hr. This is the correct answer because the question asks how many mL/hr the nurse should set the IV infusion to deliver. The specific rate of 11.0 mL/hr is likely calculated based on the patient's individual needs, prescribed fluid volume, and the desired rate of administration. Option A is too general and does not provide a specific rate. Options C and D are incorrect as they do not match the recommended rate of 11.0 mL/hr given in the question.
Extract:
A nurse is consulting A pharmacological reference about medication compatibility prior to administering warfarin to a client.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as being incompatible with warfarin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naproxen. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAI
D) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, an anticoagulant. This is due to their combined effects on blood clotting. Metformin, Lisinopril, and Albuterol do not have a significant interaction with warfarin in terms of bleeding risk.
Therefore, the nurse should identify Naproxen as incompatible with warfarin to prevent potential adverse effects.