ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn Updated 2023 Questions
Extract:
A client who has a prescription for metronidazole 250 mg PO three times daily. Available is metronidazole 500 mg tablets.
Question 1 of 5
How many tablet(s) should the nurse plan to administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 0.5
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.5 tablets per dose. This is because when rounding to the nearest tenth, 0.5 falls midway between 0 and 1. In this case, 0.5 is closer to 0 than to 1, so we round down to 0.5. The other choices are incorrect as follows: A: 0 -
Too low, as 0.5 is closer to 1 than to 0. B-G: Any whole number or fraction greater than 0.5 is incorrect because rounding 0.5 down to the nearest tenth results in 0.5 tablets per dose.
Extract:
A client who is 6 hr postpartum and is saturating perineal pads every 10 to 15 min.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collect hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. This is the first action the nurse should take to assess the client's oxygen-carrying capacity and hydration status. It provides crucial data for determining the client's overall health status. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (
B) is not the priority unless indicated. Administering oxygen via face mask (
C) is important, but assessing the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels takes precedence. Preparing the client to receive a plasma expander (
D) should only be done after assessing the client's current status.
Extract:
A client who has a placenta previa.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Painless, vaginal bleeding. This finding is indicative of placenta previa, a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding. Uterine hypertonicity (
A) suggests uterine hyperstimulation, not typically associated with placenta previa. Persistent headache (
B) is more commonly seen in conditions like preeclampsia. A firm, rigid abdomen (
C) is characteristic of uterine rupture, not placenta previa. In summary, painless vaginal bleeding is a key sign of placenta previa, distinguishing it from the other options.
Extract:
A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for further diagnostic testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The reason further testing is needed when there are three fetal movements perceived by the client in a 20-minute period is that fetal movement assessment is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. A decrease or absence of fetal movements can indicate fetal distress, prompting the need for further evaluation to ensure the well-being of the fetus. In contrast, options A, B, and D describe normal or reassuring findings within the parameters of fetal heart rate monitoring and contractions, indicating fetal well-being. Option A shows a reassuring acceleration in fetal heart rate, option B indicates absence of late decelerations, and option D describes contractions that are not concerning if not felt by the client.
Extract:
A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal visit.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential complication of pregnancy? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D,E,F
Rationale: The correct answers are D (Weight), E (Heart rate), and F (Urine-specific gravity). Weight gain outside the recommended range can indicate conditions like preeclampsia or gestational diabetes. Abnormal heart rate may suggest cardiac issues or preeclampsia. Changes in urine-specific gravity can show dehydration or kidney problems.
Choices A, B, C, and G are not direct indicators of potential pregnancy complications, though they can be affected by such complications indirectly.