ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN -Nurselytic

Questions 42

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ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma to monitor and report?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling of fingers. Acetazolamide is a diuretic commonly used to treat glaucoma. Tingling of fingers is associated with electrolyte imbalances caused by the drug's diuretic effect. This symptom may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of acetazolamide. Monitoring and reporting this symptom promptly can prevent serious complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: Constipation is not a common side effect of acetazolamide.
C: Weight gain is unlikely as acetazolamide is a diuretic causing fluid loss.
D: Oliguria, decreased urine output, is not a usual side effect of acetazolamide.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking metoprolol?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Determine apical pulse prior to administering. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can lower heart rate. By assessing the apical pulse before administering, the nurse can ensure the heart rate is within the safe range for medication administration. Weighing the client weekly (
A) is not directly related to metoprolol therapy. Administering the medication 30 minutes before breakfast (
C) is not specific timing for metoprolol. Monitoring for jaundice (
D) is not a common side effect of metoprolol.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who has taken a large amount of diazepam?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam. It competes with benzodiazepines at the receptor site, reversing their sedative and hypnotic effects. Ondansetron (
A) is an antiemetic, Magnesium Sulphate (
B) is used for various conditions like pre-eclampsia, Protamine Sulphate (
D) is used to reverse heparin anticoagulation. Flumazenil is the most appropriate choice for reversing the effects of diazepam overdose.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the normal range of 30-40 sec, indicating the client is at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation with heparin. This result should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the heparin dose to prevent bleeding complications.

Choices B, C, and D all fall within the normal range for their respective medications, so they do not require immediate reporting.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take after inadvertently administering 160 mg of valsartan PO to a client who was scheduled to receive 80 mg?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension. After administering a double dose of Valsartan, the priority is to assess the client for potential adverse effects such as a sudden drop in blood pressure, which can lead to orthostatic hypotension. This is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Monitoring urine output (
B) may be important but is not the immediate priority. Obtaining laboratory results (
C) would not provide immediate information on the client's current condition. Checking for nasal congestion (
D) is irrelevant to the situation.

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