ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN -Nurselytic

Questions 42

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ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma to monitor and report?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, tingling of fingers. Acetazolamide is a diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia, causing tingling sensations in the extremities. Constipation (
B) is not a common side effect of acetazolamide. Weight gain (
C) is unlikely as acetazolamide is a diuretic that typically causes fluid loss. Oliguria (
D) is not a typical adverse effect of acetazolamide, as it is more likely to increase urine output.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking metoprolol?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Determine apical pulse prior to administering. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as a side effect. By assessing the client's apical pulse before administering the medication, the nurse can monitor for any signs of bradycardia and adjust the dosage if necessary. Weighing the client weekly (choice
A) is not directly related to metoprolol administration. Administering the medication before breakfast (choice
C) may be a general recommendation for some medications but is not specific to metoprolol. Monitoring for jaundice (choice
D) is not a common side effect of metoprolol.

Question 3 of 5

For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide to a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent delirium tremens. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including preventing the development of delirium tremens, a severe, life-threatening complication. It works by calming the central nervous system and reducing the risk of seizures and hallucinations associated with alcohol withdrawal.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as chlordiazepoxide does not directly address diaphoresis, maintaining abstinence, or lessening cravings. These outcomes are more related to behavioral and psychological interventions rather than pharmacological management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds. A prolonged aPTT indicates a risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation, which can be a serious adverse effect of heparin therapy. The normal range for aPTT is 30-40 seconds.
Therefore, a value of 90 seconds is significantly above the normal range and should be reported to the provider for appropriate action, such as adjusting the heparin dose.


Choice B is incorrect because an aPTT of 65 seconds falls within the normal range for heparin therapy.



Choices C and D are incorrect because the INR values provided are within the normal range for warfarin therapy, so they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

In summary, the nurse should report the client with a heparin prescription and an aPTT of 90 seconds to the provider due to the risk of bleeding, while the

Question 5 of 5

How many mg should the nurse administer per dose to a child weighing 44 lbs if the prescribed dose is 15 mg/kg every 12 hours?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
To calculate the correct dose for a child weighing 44 lbs, first convert lbs to kg (44 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg).
Then, multiply the weight in kg by the prescribed dose in mg/kg (20 kg * 15 mg/kg = 300 mg).
Therefore, the correct answer is C (300 mg).
Choice A is too low, choices B, D, and E are too high.

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