ATI RN
ATI Nursing 137 Exam 3 Fall 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
During a community screening event for bone density an elderly client asked the nurse why she is an inch shorter in height. Which of the following responses by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: With aging, the cartilage between the bones in the spine gets worn down, leading to decreased height. This process is known as degenerative disc disease, where the intervertebral discs lose water content and become thinner, causing a reduction in height. As a result, the individual appears shorter. This explanation directly addresses the client's concern about the loss of height and the role of cartilage degeneration in this process.
Summary:
A: Subcutaneous fat loss does not directly contribute to decreased height.
B: Spinal flexibility may decrease with age but does not specifically account for reduced height.
D: Thickening of intervertebral discs and pressure breakdown do not lead to decreased height.
Therefore, option C is the most appropriate response as it accurately explains the mechanism behind the client's height loss.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has lactose intolerance. Which of the following will the nurse recognize as clinical findings associated with lactose intolerance? Select all that apply:
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: The correct answers are A, D, and E. Abdominal distention is a common symptom of lactose intolerance due to the inability to digest lactose. Occasional diarrhea can occur as the body tries to expel undigested lactose. Flatus is also a common symptom, as undigested lactose is fermented by gut bacteria, leading to gas production. Visible peristalsis (choice
B) is not typically associated with lactose intolerance. Hypoactive bowel sounds (choice
C) are not directly related to lactose intolerance. Overall, choices A, D, and E align with the typical clinical findings of lactose intolerance.
Question 3 of 5
A client comes to the clinic and reports having weakness in the left arm and leg for the past week. The nurse should perform which type of neurological exam?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Complete neurological examination. This is the most appropriate choice given the client's symptoms of weakness in the left arm and leg. A complete neurological examination involves assessing cranial nerves, motor function, sensory function, reflexes, coordination, and gait. This will help the nurse identify any underlying neurological issues causing the weakness. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Glasgow Coma Scale assesses level of consciousness, not weakness in limbs. C: Muscular examination focuses on muscle strength and tone, not a comprehensive neurological assessment. D: Neurologic recheck examination is not specific and does not provide a comprehensive assessment for new symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to complete a muscle strength assessment on a client. Which of the following assessment techniques should the nurse utilize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension is the appropriate technique for assessing muscle strength. This technique allows the nurse to evaluate the strength of the muscles by resisting the movement initiated by the client, providing a more accurate assessment of muscle strength. Estimating the degree of flexion and extension in each joint (choice
A) does not directly assess muscle strength. Measuring the degree of force to overcome joint flexion or extension (choice
B) focuses on the resistance rather than muscle strength. Observing muscles for contraction when lifting a heavy object (choice
D) assesses muscle function in a specific scenario, not overall strength.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is performing a scrotal assessment on a male client. Which of the following findings of the scrotum should the nurse recognize as abnormal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of small, firm, non-tender, yellowish nodules. This finding is abnormal as it could indicate the presence of testicular cancer or other concerning conditions. Small, firm, non-tender nodules should raise suspicion and prompt further evaluation.
A: Asymmetry is normal in most males.
B: Marked tenderness could indicate inflammation or infection but is not necessarily abnormal.
C: Easy sliding of scrotal contents is a normal finding.
In summary, choice D is the correct answer due to the concerning nature of the nodules, while the other choices are either normal findings or not indicative of a serious issue.