ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive 2024 Exit Exam with NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Action to Take: Teach the client to use self-talk, Engage with the client several times each day to establish trust; Potential Condition: Anxiety; Parameter to Monitor: Fearfulness, Suicide risk.
Rationale: The correct actions to take for addressing anxiety would be teaching self-talk and building trust through engagement. Fearfulness and suicide risk are relevant parameters to monitor in assessing the client's progress and response to interventions. These choices align with addressing anxiety and ensuring client safety and well-being.
Incorrect
Choices:
- A: "Ask, 'What kind of drugs have you been taking?' and 'Have you been sick recently?' are not appropriate actions for addressing anxiety.
- B: Brief psychotic disorder and delirium are not the potential conditions the client is most likely experiencing.
- C: Monitoring ability to care for self and tremulousness are not the most relevant parameters for assessing anxiety.
Question 2 of 5
A charge, nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk to become violent: Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence because past behavior is a strong indicator of future actions. Individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again.
Choice A (A history of being in prison) is not as strong of a predictor as it does not specifically address violent behavior.
Choice B (Male gender) is a generalization and not always indicative of violent behavior.
Choice C (Experiencing delusions) may increase the risk of violence but does not directly predict future violent behavior as strongly as previous violent actions do.
Extract:
A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a newborn about newborn genetic screening.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Newborn genetic screening is most accurate when performed after the baby is 24 hours old.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. This is important for legal and clinical reasons as it provides a clear record of the client's behavior leading up to seclusion, ensuring transparency and accountability. Assessing behavior once every hour (choice
B) may not be sufficient for monitoring the client's condition in seclusion. Offering fluids every 2 hours (choice
C) is important for hydration but not directly related to seclusion. Discussing inappropriate behavior with the client (choice
D) may escalate the situation and is not recommended in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A newly licensed nurse working at an HIV clinic is reviewing the responsibilities of her position at the clinic. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as tertiary prevention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and improving the quality of life for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this case, reminding clients to take medications helps prevent complications and progression of HIV. The other choices are incorrect because: B is an example of primary prevention as it aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease; C is related to secondary prevention as it involves early detection and prevention of complications; D is a form of health promotion rather than prevention.