Questions 60

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Maternal Newborn Exam 3 Fall 2023 Questions

Extract:

EMS workers complain of nausea and dizziness after caring for clients from a chemical spill.


Question 1 of 5

An emergency room nurse is performing secondary triage on clients transported from the scene of a chemical spill. After caring for the clients, the EMS workers complain of nausea and dizziness. Which immediate interventions need to be taken by the triage nurse? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

Correct Answer: B,E

Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B,E


Rationale:
1. Evacuate the emergency department (
Choice
B):
To ensure the safety of all staff and patients, evacuating the emergency department is crucial in case of a chemical spill to prevent further exposure and harm.
2. Send the client and EMS crew to decontamination (
Choice E): Decontamination is essential to remove any potential chemical contaminants from the clients and EMS crew to prevent further health issues and spread of contamination.

Summary:
A: Continuing with the triage process (
Choice
A) can expose more individuals to the chemical spill, increasing the risk of harm.
C: Placing the client in a private room (
Choice
C) does not address the immediate need for decontamination and safety of all involved.
D: Treating the client after contaminated items are removed (
Choice
D) delays necessary decontamination and increases the risk of complications.

Extract:


Question 2 of 5

A community health nurse is conducting an educational program on various environmental pollutants. The nurse should emphasize that clients who have which of the following disorders are especially vulnerable to ozone effects?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways, making individuals more sensitive to environmental pollutants like ozone. Ozone can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate respiratory distress in asthmatic individuals. Mitral valve disease (
A), nasal polyps (
C), and seasonal allergies (
D) are not directly related to respiratory functions and do not increase vulnerability to ozone effects. Asthma is the most appropriate choice as it directly impacts the lungs and airways, making individuals more susceptible to the harmful effects of ozone exposure.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is developing an activity plan for a client. The nurse should recognize that which activity plan would best conserve the client's energy without compromising physical or mental health?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because scheduling energy-intensive activities at the time of day when the client has higher energy levels helps conserve their energy. This approach aligns with the client's natural energy fluctuations, maximizing efficiency while preventing exhaustion.
Choice B, scheduling all activities within a small block of time, may lead to fatigue due to lack of breaks.
Choice C, scheduling toilet breaks before and after activities, does not address energy conservation.
Choice D, scheduling hygiene activities and limiting visitors, is not directly related to conserving energy.

Extract:

A client who had a cerebral aneurysm rupture.


Question 4 of 5

A nurse is monitoring a client who had a cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Increased intracranial pressure can lead to hypertension due to the body's compensatory mechanisms trying to maintain cerebral perfusion. Hypertension helps to increase cerebral blood flow and maintain adequate oxygenation to the brain. Tinnitus (
B) is not directly related to increased intracranial pressure. Hypotension (
C) is not a typical manifestation, as the body usually responds with hypertension. Tachycardia (
D) can occur as a late sign of increased ICP, but hypertension is a more specific early indicator.

Extract:


Question 5 of 5

The client is scheduled for a functional assessment using the Functional Independence Measure (FIM). The client asks the nurse, 'What is the purpose of the FIM?' Which nursing response is appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It is a tool that is used to determine your maximum level of self-sufficiency." The Functional Independence Measure (FIM) assesses a person's ability to perform activities of daily living independently. By using this tool, healthcare professionals can evaluate the client's functional status and determine their level of independence in various tasks. This information helps in creating a care plan tailored to the client's needs.


Choice B is incorrect because the FIM is not about the client's comfort level but rather their actual ability to perform tasks.
Choice C is incorrect as the FIM is not primarily used by insurance companies for reimbursement decisions.
Choice D is incorrect because the FIM is not specifically focused on determining the services needed from a home health aide but rather on the client's own level of independence.

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