ATI RN
ATI RN Mental Custom Health Next Gen Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I can hear that your sister comments are overwhelming you." This response demonstrates empathy and active listening, acknowledging the client's feelings without dismissing them. It validates the client's experience and fosters a therapeutic relationship.
Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings and does not address the underlying issue.
Choice C can be perceived as confrontational and may make the client defensive.
Choice D is a good therapeutic technique but does not directly address the client's emotional distress caused by her sister's comments. Overall, choice B is the best response as it shows empathy and understanding towards the client's situation.
Question 2 of 5
During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Remaining calm and using a matter-of-fact approach is important to provide reassurance and a sense of security to the client. By staying composed, the nurse can help the client feel supported and understood, reducing her anxiety. This approach helps to establish trust and promote effective communication.
A: While assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills is important, in this acute situation, immediate reassurance and support are needed first.
C: Asking the client why she is anxious may be overwhelming and may not provide immediate relief.
D: Administering a sedative should be a last resort and should not be the initial intervention in this case.
Question 3 of 5
Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient’s nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?" This response acknowledges the patient's experience without dismissing it or imposing the nurse's reality. It shows empathy and encourages the patient to express their thoughts, facilitating therapeutic communication.
Choice A fails to acknowledge the patient's experience and may come off as dismissive.
Choice B is directive and denies the reality of the patient's experience, potentially causing distress.
Choice D is also directive and may alienate the patient.
Choices E, F, and G are not provided, but they would likely be incorrect if they fail to address the patient's altered thought processes in a nonjudgmental and empathetic manner.
Question 4 of 5
A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid recognizing the behavior. This intervention is best because echolalia is a symptom of schizophrenia and acknowledging or reinforcing it may exacerbate the behavior. Ignoring the behavior can help decrease its frequency as the client may lose interest in repeating others' words if it does not elicit a response. Isolating the client (
A) may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate symptoms. Administering a sedative (
B) should not be the first-line approach as it does not address the underlying cause of the behavior. Escorting the client to his room (
D) may not be effective in managing echolalia.
Question 5 of 5
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary muscle contractions, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine is commonly used to manage dystonia by blocking acetylcholine receptors in the brain. By administering benztropine, the nurse can help alleviate the client's symptoms of muscle contractions and provide relief.
Incorrect options:
A: Medicate the client with thioridazine - Thioridazine is not the appropriate medication for managing dystonia.
B: Offer a hot pack for muscle spasms - While heat therapy can be helpful for muscle relaxation, it does not address the underlying cause of dystonia.
D: Direct client to occupational therapy - Occupational therapy may be beneficial for overall mental health, but it does not specifically address the acute symptoms of dystonia.
Overall, option