ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical 2 Final 2024 Assessment Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A staff nurse is teaching a client who has Addison's disease about the disease process. The client asks the nurse what causes Addison's disease. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Addison's disease is indeed caused by the lack of production of hormones by the adrenal glands, particularly cortisol and aldosterone. Aldosterone helps to maintain blood pressure and the balance of sodium and potassium in the blood. When the adrenal glands do not produce enough aldosterone, it can lead to symptoms such as low blood pressure and salt cravings, which are characteristic of Addison's disease.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who has AIDS and a significantly decreased CD4+ T-cell count. The nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for developing which of the following infectious oral conditions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients with low CD4+ T-cell counts, causing oral thrush.
Question 3 of 5
During a routine physical examination, a nurse observes a 1-cm (0.4-in) lesion on a client's chest. The lesion is raised and flesh-colored with pearly white borders. The nurse should recognize that this finding is suggestive of which of the following types of skin cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant melanoma typically presents as a mole that changes in color, size, or feel and has irregular edges. It may also itch, ooze, or bleed. A raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders is not characteristic of malignant melanoma. Basal cell carcinoma often appears as a raised, pearly bump, sometimes with visible blood vessels, which may have a central depression. The description of the lesion as raised, flesh-colored with pearly white borders aligns with the common presentation of basal cell carcinoma. Squamous cell carcinoma usually presents as a firm, red nodule, or a flat lesion with a scaly, crusted surface. The lesion described does not match the typical appearance of squamous cell carcinoma. Actinic keratosis is characterized by rough, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas of the skin, which may be precancerous. They are not typically described as raised, flesh-colored lesions with pearly borders.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning to teach a client who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake post-IVP helps flush out contrast dye, reducing kidney risks. Diet resumption depends on provider instructions, IVP uses X-rays not sound waves, and red blood cells in urinalysis do not typically cancel the procedure.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a rotator cuff injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder is a classic sign of a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is responsible for stabilizing the shoulder joint and aiding in various movements, including abduction. When there is a tear or significant weakness in the rotator cuff muscles, especially the supraspinatus muscle, the patient may be unable to lift the arm away from the body or may experience pain while doing so. A negative drop arm test would actually indicate that there is no rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by asking the patient to fully abduct the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the patient can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the patient cannot control the descent of the arm, would suggest a rotator cuff tear. While an alteration in the contour of the joint may indicate some form of shoulder pathology, it is not specific to a rotator cuff injury. Changes in the contour could be due to various conditions, including dislocation, arthritis, or other musculoskeletal disorders. A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, not rotator cuff injuries. It is performed by tapping over the course of a nerve to elicit a tingling sensation or pain in the distribution of the nerve. This sign is commonly associated with conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome.