ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Exam N300 Exam Day Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A physician prescribes clindamycin 10 mg/kg/day IV in two divided doses for respiratory tract infection. The medication is supplied 150 mg/mL. The patient weighs 88 lbs. How much will the nurse administer per dose? (round to the nearest tenth)
Correct Answer: 1.3 mL
Rationale:
To calculate the dosage of clindamycin, first convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms (88 lbs / 2.2 = 40 kg). The prescribed dose is 10 mg/kg/day, so the patient requires 400 mg/day (10 mg/kg * 40 kg). Since the medication is administered in two divided doses, each dose is 200 mg. The medication is supplied at 150 mg/mL, so 200 mg / 150 mg/mL = 1.33 mL, rounded to 1.3 mL per dose.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse on the brain injury unit observes a patient who displays inappropriate sexual behavior. What would be the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pointing out the behavior as unacceptable provides immediate feedback and helps the patient understand social boundaries, which can be challenging post-brain injury. This approach is direct and respectful, focusing on redirection rather than punishment.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a spinal cord injury at the level of C-6. The patient displays the following symptoms: loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side of the injury, loss of temperature and pain sensation on the contralateral side. What type of injury did this individual most likely suffer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Brown-Sequard syndrome typically presents with motor function loss on the same (ipsilateral) side of the injury and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite (contralateral) side, making this the most likely diagnosis.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider has prescribed intravenous (IV) lorazepam for the patient in status epilepticus. During administration, which is the priority assessment by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulse oximetry is the priority assessment as IV lorazepam can depress the respiratory system, leading to hypoxia. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps ensure the patient maintains adequate respiratory function during administration.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has returned to the unit following a peripheral arteriogram. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the dorsalis pedis pulse is not palpable and the foot is cold. What should be the nurse's immediate action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cold, pulseless foot indicates compromised blood flow, a medical emergency following an arteriogram. The nurse should immediately notify the physician to address potential vascular occlusion.