ATI RN
ATI Nurs285 Med Surg Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with dyspnea and wheezing. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention to manage these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A short-acting beta-agonist (SAB
A) is the first-line treatment for acute dyspnea and wheezing in COPD, rapidly relieving bronchoconstriction.
Question 2 of 5
A patient on prolonged bedrest following a pelvic fracture becomes dyspneic and confused. Pulse = 135 beats/minute, blood pressure = 90/50 mmHg, respirations = 36/minute, Oxygen saturation starts dropping rapidly. Which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare to treat for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms (dyspnea, confusion, tachycardia, hypotension, and desaturation) after prolonged bedrest suggest pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring urgent treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A client suffered a fractured femur and is scheduled for surgery one day after sustaining the injury. The client develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and the healthcare provider suspects fat embolism (FES) based on which of the following clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Decreased PaO2 <60mmHg, decreased platelet count and hematocrit, and ECG changes (ST segment and T-wave) are clinical manifestations of fat embolism syndrome, indicating hypoxemia, DIC, and myocardial effects.
Question 4 of 5
A client is admitted to the emergency room with an asthma attack. To decrease the client's dyspnea and anxiety, which of the following interventions will the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Staying with the client and encouraging pursed-lip breathing reduces anxiety and improves ventilation, alleviating dyspnea during an asthma attack.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with asthma presents with daily peak flow rates consistently at 45% of their personal best. What is the most appropriate action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Peak flow rates at 45% indicate poor asthma control, requiring initiation of an asthma action plan and oral corticosteroids to manage the exacerbation.