ATI RN
ATI Pharmocology Exam Fletcher NRSG 106 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenobarbital reduces REM sleep, leading to irritability and difficulty coping with stress.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been taking donepezil for 2 weeks as part of the treatment for early stages of Alzheimer's disease. Her daughter calls the prescriber's office and is upset because 'Mother has not improved one bit!' Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Donepezil may take up to 6 weeks to show therapeutic effects, providing an accurate expectation.
Question 3 of 5
A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methadone, an opioid agonist, is used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms and support long-term dependence treatment.
Question 4 of 5
An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adrenergic agonists increase heart rate and contractility, improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which is the primary goal in shock treatment.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, 'Why are there two drugs in this pill?' The nurse's best response reflects which fact?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carbidopa inhibits peripheral breakdown of levodopa, allowing more to reach the brain for conversion to dopamine, enhancing efficacy.