ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse works with an AP assigned to bathe a client with herpes zoster. The AP asks if it is contagious. What should the nurse say?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Individuals who have had chickenpox in the past are not at risk of getting shingles from someone with herpes zoster. The virus is not transmitted through the air (choice
B) or through blood contact only (choice
D). It is not highly contagious to everyone (choice
C). By explaining to the AP that herpes zoster is not contagious to individuals who have had chickenpox, the nurse provides accurate information and helps alleviate concerns about the spread of the virus.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to initiate a transfusion of packed RBC for a client who has anemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the client's vital signs every 15 min during the transfusion. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of transfusion reaction, such as fever, chills, or hypotension. Vital signs should be closely monitored initially and then at regular intervals to ensure the client's safety. Checking every 15 minutes allows for early detection and prompt intervention if any adverse reactions occur.
Choice B is incorrect because obtaining a blood pressure reading every 30 minutes is not as frequent as checking vital signs every 15 minutes, which is necessary for early detection of adverse reactions.
Choice C is incorrect as starting the transfusion at a rapid rate can lead to adverse reactions like fluid overload or hemolysis. Transfusions should be started at a slow rate to minimize these risks.
Choice D is incorrect because checking vital signs every hour is not frequent enough to detect early signs of transfusion reactions. Regular monitoring every 15 minutes is recommended for safety.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a postoperative client. Which procedure places the client at highest risk for DVT?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hip arthroplasty. This procedure involves prolonged immobility, causing blood stasis and increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The reduced blood flow in the legs can lead to clot formation. Appendectomy (
A), cholecystectomy (
C), and tonsillectomy (
D) are not typically associated with prolonged immobility like hip arthroplasty, thus lower DVT risk.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning an educational program about basal cell carcinoma. Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basal cell carcinoma has a low incidence of metastasis. Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes to other parts of the body, making it highly curable through surgical excision. This information is crucial for patients to understand the low likelihood of the cancer spreading.
Choices B and C are incorrect because basal cell carcinoma is not typically fatal nor does it metastasize early.
Choice D is incorrect as basal cell carcinoma is more common in older adults, not younger clients.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has had a spinal cord injury at the level of the T2-T3 vertebrae. When planning care, the nurse should anticipate which of the following types of disability?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paraplegia. Damage at the T2-T3 vertebrae level affects the lower part of the body, resulting in paralysis of the legs and potentially part of the trunk (paraplegia). This injury does not affect the arms or hands, ruling out tetraplegia (
B) and quadriplegia (
C). Hemiplegia (
D) refers to paralysis on one side of the body only, which is not the case here. Other choices are not applicable.