ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn level 3 Final Exam 2023 (All Correct Answers). Maternal-Child Nursing Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should assess the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L first as this indicates severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious complications like seizures and cardiac arrhythmias. Hydration and electrolyte balance are critical for both maternal and fetal well-being.
Choice A is not the priority as a client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within target range and does not require immediate assessment.
Choice B is not the priority as a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an urgent situation.
Choice D is not the priority as a hematocrit of 36% in a client with placenta previa is not concerning unless there are signs of active bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a new parent about car seat safety. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because positioning the baby's car seat at a 45-degree angle in the car helps prevent the baby's head from flopping forward and potentially obstructing the airway, ensuring optimal safety.
Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the recommended weight limit for rear-facing seats, which is typically until the baby reaches 20-35 pounds.
Choice C is incorrect as the harness should be positioned at or below the baby's shoulders, not above.
Choice D is incorrect because the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level, not at the top of the baby's abdomen.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is using Nagele's rule to calculate the expected delivery date of a client who reports the first day of the last menstrual cycle was July 28th. Which of the following dates should the nurse document as the client's expected delivery date?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: May 5th. Nagele's rule is to add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (July 28th), then subtract 3 months, and finally add 1 year.
Therefore, July 28th + 7 days = August 4th. Subtracting 3 months gives May 4th. Adding 1 year brings us to May 5th, the expected delivery date.
Choice A (April 21st) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct calculation process.
Choice B (April 4th) is too early based on Nagele's rule.
Choice D (May 21st) is too late as it does not account for subtracting 3 months.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is 27 weeks of gestation and has pre-eclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 60,000/mm³. In pre-eclampsia, low platelet count can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe variant requiring immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to bleeding complications for both the mother and the fetus. Reporting this finding promptly can help prevent serious complications.
Choice A (Hemoglobin 14.8 g/dL) is within normal range and not a concerning finding in pre-eclampsia.
Choice C (Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL) is also within normal limits and not typically a primary concern in pre-eclampsia.
Choice D (Urine protein concentration 200 mg/24hr) is a common finding in pre-eclampsia, indicating proteinuria, but it is not as urgent as thrombocytopenia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate during the prenatal visit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Correct Answer: D - A client who has felt quickening for the first time.
Rationale: Quickening refers to the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, typically around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Auscultating the fetal heart rate at this point confirms fetal viability, provides reassurance, and allows for monitoring of the fetal well-being. It is an essential part of prenatal care to ensure the health and development of the fetus.
Summary of Other
Choices:
A: A client with a molar pregnancy does not have a viable fetus, so auscultating the fetal heart rate is not applicable.
B: A crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is still early in pregnancy, and fetal heart tones may not be reliably detected at this point.
C: A positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses indicates early pregnancy, but it is too early to reliably auscultate the fetal heart rate.