ATI RN
ATI SP 250 Exam 3 Med Surg Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is performing an admission assessment of a client who has COPD with emphysema. The client reports that he has a frequent productive cough and is short of breath. The nurse should anticipate which of the following assessment findings for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This is because emphysema causes destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil, which leads to air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. This results in a barrel-shaped chest and increased chest circumference.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has AIDS. The nurse notes that the client has multiple and widespread raised, purplish-brown skin lesions. The nurse should recognize that these findings indicate which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer that causes abnormal growth of blood vessels and connective tissue, resulting in purplish-brown lesions. It is associated with AIDS due to immunosuppression and human herpesvirus 8 infection. The lesions are caused by human herpesvirus 8 and can appear anywhere on the body, but are more common on the face, trunk, and extremities.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has viral rhinitis and a history of herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) lesions. The nurse should assess which of the following areas of the body for the recurrence of HSV-1 lesions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This is because HSV-1 typically causes oral herpes, which manifests as cold sores or fever blisters around the mouth or lips.
Extract:
Diagnostic Results
January:
• Laboratory: CD4 cell count 200 cells/mm³ (Normal range: 600-1500 cells/mm³)
June:
• Laboratory: CD4 cell count 90 cells/mm³ (Normal range: 600-1500 cells/mm³)
• Chest x-ray: Bilateral white infiltrates consistent with pneumonia
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a community health clinic is caring for a client who has a history of HIV. For each of the following assessment findings for the client, identify if the finding is consistent with HIV stage I or HIV stage III (AIDS). Each finding may support more than one disease process.
| Options | HIV stage I | HIV stage III |
|---|---|---|
| CD4 cell count 200 cells/mm3 (600-1500 cells/mm3) | ||
| Weight changes | ||
| Chest x-ray showing bilateral white infiltrates consistent with pneumonia | ||
| Skin condition | ||
| Latest CD4 cell count |
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: CD4 cell count 200 cells/mm³ is consistent with HIV stage II or III, as it indicates significant immunosuppression. Chest x-ray showing bilateral white infiltrates consistent with pneumonia is indicative of HIV stage III (AIDS), as opportunistic infections like pneumonia are common. Latest CD4 cell count (90 cells/mm³) is consistent with HIV stage III (AIDS), as it is below 200 cells/mm³, a threshold for AIDS diagnosis.
Extract:
Vital Signs
• Temperature 38.1° C (100.6° F)
• Heart rate 122/min
• Respiratory rate 26/min
• BP 136/85 mm Hg
• Oxygen saturation 93% on room air
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. The client is at risk for developing .
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that affects the lungs and can be transmitted through respiratory droplets. People with HIV are more susceptible to tuberculosis because their immune system is weakened by the virus. Tuberculosis can cause fever, cough, weight loss, and night sweats. The client's vital signs indicate that they have a fever and a high heart rate and respiratory rate, which could be signs of tuberculosis.