ATI RN
ATI RN Pediatric Nursing 2023 II Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching the parent of an infant who has a new diagnosis of heart failure about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implement a 3 hr feeding schedule. In heart failure, infants may have difficulty feeding due to shortness of breath and fatigue. Implementing a 3-hour feeding schedule allows for adequate rest between feedings, reducing the risk of overwhelming the infant's cardiovascular system and promoting better feeding efficiency.
Choice A is incorrect because allowing the infant to self soothe by crying prior to feeding can lead to increased stress and may worsen the infant's heart failure symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect as placing the infant in a recumbent position during feeding can increase the workload on the heart and may lead to aspiration or choking.
Choice D is incorrect because allowing the infant 45 minutes for each feeding may lead to fatigue and may not be well tolerated by an infant with heart failure.
In summary,
Choice C is the correct option as it promotes adequate rest and optimal feeding for an infant with heart failure, while the other choices may pose risks or challenges for the infant's
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A decrease in peripheral edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, reducing fluid retention, and decreasing edema in patients with heart failure.
Therefore, if the medication is effective, the nurse should expect to see a reduction in peripheral edema as a result of the decreased fluid volume in the body.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increase in potassium levels, a decrease in cardiac output, and an increase in venous pressure are not expected outcomes of furosemide therapy and would actually indicate an ineffective treatment or potential complications.
Extract:
Exhibit 2 Nurses' Notes 0730: Child presents to the emergency department (ED). Guardians report the child woke up coughing with a low-grade fever. Child appears alert and restless in guardian's arms. Respirations easy, no cough noted. 0800: Child became agitated. Hoarse cry noted with audible inspiratory stridor. Barking, nonproductive cough present.
Question 3 of 5
For each of the following findings, click to specify if the finding is consistent with acute laryngotracheobronchitis or pneumonia. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
Finding | Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis | pneumonia |
---|---|---|
Irritability | ||
Temperature | ||
Cough findings at 0800 | ||
Stridor |
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: The correct answer is .
A: Irritability is a common symptom seen in both acute laryngotracheobronchitis and pneumonia due to the discomfort caused by respiratory issues.
B: Temperature is an important indicator in differentiating between the two conditions as pneumonia typically presents with higher fever compared to laryngotracheobronchitis.
C: Cough findings at 0800 can be present in both conditions, but the nature of the cough and accompanying symptoms can help differentiate between them.
D: Stridor is a key clinical finding in acute laryngotracheobronchitis due to upper airway inflammation, whereas it is not a typical finding in pneumonia.
Incorrect choices:
E, F, G: These choices are left blank as they are not relevant to distinguishing between acute laryngotracheobronchitis and pneumonia based on the given parameters.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing instructions about a 24-hr urine collection to an adolescent client. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Discard the first voided specimen. This is because the first voided specimen may contain substances that have accumulated overnight and are not representative of the 24-hour collection. It is important to start the collection after discarding the first void and then collect all subsequent voids over the next 24 hours.
Choice B is incorrect as voiding every hour is not necessary for a 24-hour urine collection.
Choice C is incorrect because cleansing with a povidone-iodine solution is not typically required for a urine collection.
Choice D is incorrect because saving the final specimen in a separate container is unnecessary and may lead to confusion.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child who has acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that treatment has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear urine. In acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, the kidneys are inflamed, leading to protein and blood in the urine, causing it to appear cloudy or dark. Clear urine indicates that the inflammation and damage to the kidneys have improved, reflecting effective treatment.
Choice A is not relevant to kidney function.
Choice B does not directly relate to kidney inflammation.
Choice D is not a specific indicator of kidney improvement.