ATI RN
ATI Maternal NewBorn Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN All 70 Questions With Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about steps the nurses will take to promote the security and safety of the client's newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that staff members caring for the newborn will be wearing a photo identification badge as a safety measure. This ensures that only authorized personnel are handling the baby, reducing the risk of abduction or unauthorized access. It also helps the client easily identify legitimate staff members.
Choice A is incorrect because it is not recommended for nurses to carry newborns to the nursery for procedures due to infection control policies.
Choice B is irrelevant to promoting the security and safety of the newborn.
Choice C is incorrect as bed-sharing with a newborn in the hospital setting is not safe due to the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Active phase. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation (6-10 cm) and increased contractions with shorter intervals. The client's symptoms align with this phase as they are experiencing strong contractions close together, along with increased rectal pressure indicating descent of the fetus. Other choices are incorrect as: A (Passive descent) occurs during the second stage of labor; C (Early phase) is typically before 6 cm dilation; D (Descent) is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation about manifestations of potential pregnancy complications to report to the provider. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache that is unrelieved by analgesia. This symptom could indicate preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Prompt reporting is crucial to prevent complications. Shortness of breath (
A) and swelling of feet and ankles (
B) are common in pregnancy but not necessarily indicative of a serious complication. Braxton Hicks contractions (
D) are normal and not usually a cause for concern.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following conditions is an indication for fetal assessment using electronic fetal monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligohydramnios. Electronic fetal monitoring is used to assess the well-being of the fetus during pregnancy, labor, and delivery. Oligohydramnios refers to a low level of amniotic fluid, which can indicate fetal distress or compromise. Monitoring the fetal heart rate patterns using electronic fetal monitoring in this case can help detect any abnormalities and guide appropriate interventions to optimize fetal outcomes.
Incorrect choices:
B: Hyperemesis gravidarum - This is severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, not a direct indication for fetal monitoring.
C: Leukorrhea - This is a common vaginal discharge in pregnancy, not a direct indication for fetal monitoring.
D: Periodic tingling of the fingers - This is not related to fetal assessment and is more likely a symptom of a different issue, such as nerve compression.
Extract:
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results in the adolescent's medical
record.
Exhibit 1
History and Physical
Adolescent is sexually active with two current partners.
IUD in place
Reports not using condoms during sexual activity.
History of type 1 diabetes mellitus
Question 5 of 5
The nurse suspects the adolescent is experiencing pelvic inflammatory disease and is planning care. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The nurse should anticipate a provider's prescription for ------------------------------ and --------------------------
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: The correct answer is B (doxycycline) and C (Ceftriaxone). Pelvic inflammatory disease (PI
D) is commonly treated with antibiotics to target the infection. Doxycycline and Ceftriaxone are effective antibiotics for treating PID caused by common pathogens like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, while Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. These medications are commonly prescribed in combination to cover a broader spectrum of potential pathogens causing PID.
Choice A (fuconazole) is an antifungal medication and is not appropriate for treating PID.
Choice D (acyclovir) is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes infections, which are not associated with PID.
Choice E (imiquimod) is an immune response modifier used for treating certain skin conditions and