ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 IV Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about administering naloxone to treat a client who is experiencing opioid toxicity. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client for ventricular arrhythmia after administration. This is crucial because naloxone can precipitate ventricular arrhythmias in some cases due to its rapid reversal of opioid effects. Monitoring for this adverse effect allows for prompt intervention if needed.
Choice A is incorrect because naloxone is not administered orally, it is typically given intravenously or intramuscularly due to its rapid onset of action.
Choice B is incorrect as naloxone is not contraindicated for clients with glaucoma.
Choice D is incorrect because naloxone has a short duration of action, so it should be administered as needed rather than on a fixed schedule every 1 to 2 hours.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of penicillin G IM to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an indication of an allergic reaction following the injection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urticaria. Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of an allergic reaction to penicillin. It presents as raised, itchy welts on the skin. Monitoring for urticaria is crucial as it indicates a potential allergic response, which can progress to more severe reactions like anaphylaxis. Dyspepsia (
A) refers to indigestion and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Bradycardia (
B) is a slow heart rate, which is not a common sign of an allergic reaction. Pallor (
C) refers to paleness of the skin and is a non-specific symptom that may not necessarily indicate an allergic reaction.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for urticaria as a key sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin G IM.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A negative sputum culture indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. This outcome suggests that the medication is effectively reducing the bacterial load in the lungs. A positive PPD test (choice
A) indicates exposure to TB but does not assess medication adherence. A negative HIV test (choice
B) is unrelated to TB medication adherence. Liver function test results within the expected range (choice
D) are important but do not directly confirm medication adherence for TB.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is interviewing a client who was newly admitted prior to administering medications. The client tells the nurse, 'I forgot to tell the doctor I take albuterol for asthma.' For which of the following medications should the nurse withhold the dose and notify the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propranolol. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist used for asthma, which can interact with beta-blockers like propranolol, potentially causing severe bronchospasm and respiratory distress. The nurse should withhold the dose and notify the provider to avoid this dangerous interaction. Isosorbide mononitrate (
A) is a nitrate used for angina, not contraindicated with albuterol. Pantoprazole (
B) is a proton pump inhibitor for acid reflux, unrelated to albuterol. Montelukast (
C) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist for asthma, not contraindicated with albuterol.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hearing loss. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. This adverse effect is important for the nurse to monitor in clients taking furosemide. Increased blood pressure (
A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather a desired outcome in heart failure management. Ankle edema (
C) is actually a symptom of heart failure and should improve with furosemide use. Decreased blood sugar (
D) is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.