ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a middle-aged client about hypertension. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics are the first-line treatment for hypertension as they reduce blood volume, lowering blood pressure.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because DIC is characterized by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen. In septic shock, the body's response triggers widespread activation of the coagulation system, leading to the consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen. This results in the formation of microclots throughout the body, leading to organ dysfunction.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as DIC is not caused by increased fibrinogen levels, a reduction in platelet production, or a decrease in clotting factors. It is essential for the nurse to emphasize the role of abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen in DIC to help the client understand the pathology and potential complications associated with septic shock.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The nurse reviews the provider's orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carvedilol. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms in clients with a history of asthma due to its potential bronchoconstrictive effects. Furosemide (
A), Spironolactone (
C), and Lisinopril (
D) are commonly used in heart failure management and do not pose a significant risk for clients with asthma. It is crucial to avoid medications that can worsen respiratory function in clients with a history of asthma to prevent complications.
Question 4 of 5
A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min. This is essential to prevent hypoxemia during the suctioning procedure. Adequate preoxygenation helps to increase the oxygen reserves in the client's lungs, reducing the risk of oxygen desaturation during and after suctioning. This is particularly important for clients with COPD and an artificial airway, as they are already at risk for hypoxemia due to impaired lung function.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Performing suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds is a general guideline, but it is not specific to clients with COPD and an artificial airway.
C: Applying suction while inserting the catheter is incorrect as this can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection.
D: Limiting oxygen therapy to 50% prior to suctioning is incorrect as it can lead to hypoxemia in clients with
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client about the causes of osteoporosis. The nurse should include which of the following types of medication therapy as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thyroid hormones. Excessive use of thyroid hormones can lead to osteoporosis by increasing bone turnover and reducing bone mineral density. Thyroid hormones can interfere with the normal process of bone formation and resorption, leading to weakened bones. Aspirin therapy (
A) is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Calcium supplements (
B) are actually recommended to prevent osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy (
C) is also not a risk factor; in fact, estrogen helps to maintain bone density.