ATI RN
ATI Maternal NewBorn Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN All 70 Questions With Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation about manifestations of potential pregnancy complications to report to the provider. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache that is unrelieved by analgesia. This symptom could indicate preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Prompt reporting is crucial to prevent complications. Shortness of breath (
A) and swelling of feet and ankles (
B) are common in pregnancy but not necessarily indicative of a serious complication. Braxton Hicks contractions (
D) are normal and not usually a cause for concern.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about steps the nurses will take to promote the security and safety of the client's newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that staff members caring for the newborn will be wearing a photo identification badge as a safety measure. This ensures that only authorized personnel are handling the baby, reducing the risk of abduction or unauthorized access. It also helps the client easily identify legitimate staff members.
Choice A is incorrect because it is not recommended for nurses to carry newborns to the nursery for procedures due to infection control policies.
Choice B is irrelevant to promoting the security and safety of the newborn.
Choice C is incorrect as bed-sharing with a newborn in the hospital setting is not safe due to the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling of the face. This finding can indicate preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Preeclampsia poses risks to both the mother and the baby, so prompt reporting to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Varicose veins in the calves (
B) are common in pregnancy due to increased pressure on the veins but do not require immediate provider notification. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema (
C) is a common finding in pregnancy and is not typically concerning unless it worsens significantly. Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks (
D) is a common benign finding known as melasma and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Minimal arm recoil. In premature newborns born at 26 weeks of gestation, they typically exhibit minimal arm recoil due to their immature neuromuscular development. This is a key characteristic assessed in the New Ballard Score to determine the gestational age of the newborn.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected findings in a premature newborn at 26 weeks of gestation. Popliteal angle of 90° (
Choice
B) is more typical in a term newborn. Creases over the entire foot sole (
Choice
C) are also more common in term newborns. Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds (
Choice
D) are indicative of a more mature newborn and not typically seen in a premature newborn at 26 weeks of gestation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Active phase. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation (6-10 cm) and increased contractions with shorter intervals. The client's symptoms align with this phase as they are experiencing strong contractions close together, along with increased rectal pressure indicating descent of the fetus. Other choices are incorrect as: A (Passive descent) occurs during the second stage of labor; C (Early phase) is typically before 6 cm dilation; D (Descent) is not a recognized phase of labor.