ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam 2 Final Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I may have a dry mouth while taking this medication." This is correct because chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication known to cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic properties. Dry mouth is a potential adverse effect that the client should be aware of.
Choice B is incorrect because chlorpromazine does not typically cause increased urination.
Choice C is incorrect because chlorpromazine is not indicated for smoking cessation.
Choice D is incorrect because flu-like symptoms are not a common side effect of chlorpromazine.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer lansoprazole 30 mg PO daily to a client. The amount available is lansoprazole 10 mg per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose?
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale: The correct answer is 3 tablets.
To achieve a total dose of 30 mg daily, with each tablet containing 10 mg, the nurse should administer 3 tablets per dose. This calculation ensures the client receives the prescribed dosage. Other choices are incorrect because administering fewer tablets would result in an inadequate dose, while administering more tablets would exceed the prescribed dosage, potentially leading to adverse effects. It is essential to follow precise calculations to ensure safe and effective medication administration.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has primary hypothyroidism. The nurse should anticipate an elevation of which of the following laboratory values?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). In primary hypothyroidism, there is decreased production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), leading to a negative feedback loop that causes an increase in TSH secretion from the pituitary gland to stimulate the thyroid gland.
Therefore, elevated TSH levels are expected in primary hypothyroidism. Free T4 (choice
A) and Serum T4 (choice
D) are not elevated in primary hypothyroidism; instead, they are typically low. Serum T3 (choice
C) may be normal or decreased in primary hypothyroidism.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of an acute hemolytic reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client report of low back pain. This is indicative of an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. Hemolysis of red blood cells can lead to the release of hemoglobin, causing back pain. A productive cough (choice
A) is more likely to be associated with fluid overload. Distended neck veins (choice
B) can indicate fluid overload or heart failure. Tinnitus (choice
D) can be a sign of salicylate toxicity or ototoxicity but is not directly related to a hemolytic reaction.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to infuse a 250-mL unit of packed RBCs over 2 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtts/mL. The nurse should adjust the flow rate to deliver how many drops per minute?
Correct Answer: 31
Rationale:
To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute for the infusion of packed RBCs, we first need to determine the total number of drops to be infused over 2 hours.
Step 1: Calculate the total drops in 2 hours:
2 hours = 120 minutes
250 mL x 15 gtts/mL = 3750 drops
3750 drops ÷ 120 minutes = 31.25 drops/minute
Step 2: The correct answer is rounded down to 31 drops per minute as IV infusion sets typically do not allow for fractions of drops.
Summary:
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Choice A: Incorrect. The correct flow rate is not 60 drops per minute as that would be too fast.
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Choices B-G: Irrelevant as they do not follow the calculation process required to determine the correct flow rate.