Questions 25

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ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Nurs 100 Fundamentals Quiz Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A nurse is teaching a client about foods and beverages that can cause diarrhea. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Caffeinated beverages. Caffeine is a known diuretic that can stimulate the digestive system and cause diarrhea in some individuals. The nurse should include this in the teaching to help the client avoid potential triggers for diarrhea. Ripe bananas (choice
A) are actually recommended for managing diarrhea due to their binding properties. White rice (choice
C) and low-fiber cereal (choice
D) are considered part of the BRAT diet, which is often recommended for easing diarrhea symptoms. However, these options are not known to cause diarrhea.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who is confined to bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Rationale:
Choice C is correct because repositioning the client every 2 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers. This action promotes circulation and relieves pressure on bony areas. Massaging bony prominences (
A) can increase the risk of tissue damage. Assessing for coolness (
B) is important but not as crucial as repositioning. Keeping skin moist (
D) without repositioning won't prevent pressure ulcers.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the client's peristalsis is returning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Passage of flatus. This indicates peristalsis is returning post abdominal surgery. Flatus passage indicates movement in the intestines, suggesting the return of bowel function. Abdominal distention (choice
A) is a sign of bowel obstruction, not returning peristalsis. Request for tea and toast (choice
B) does not directly indicate peristalsis. Hypoactive bowel sounds in two quadrants (choice
D) suggest decreased bowel motility, not returning peristalsis.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lift, rather than pull, to lift the client up in bed. This intervention helps in preventing shearing forces that can lead to pressure ulcers in older adults. Shearing occurs when the skin moves in one direction and the underlying tissues move in the opposite direction, causing damage to blood vessels. By lifting the client instead of pulling, the nurse reduces the risk of shearing. Elevating the head of the bed no more than 45° (
A) can help in reducing pressure on the skin but is not as effective as proper lifting techniques. Applying baby powder (
B) can actually increase the risk of skin irritation and should be avoided. Massaging reddened skin (
D) can further damage the skin and worsen the pressure ulcer.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure ulcer. The nurse should identify an elevation in which of the following laboratory values as an indication that the client has developed an infection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: WBC count. An elevated WBC count indicates an immune response to an infection, commonly seen in pressure ulcers. The increase in WBCs is the body's way of fighting off pathogens and indicates an active infection. RBC count (
A) is related to oxygen transport, not infection. BUN (
B) and potassium (
D) are more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance, not infection.

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