ATI RN
ATI NUR 180 Pharmacology Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client about a medication that has a receptor with an antagonist effect. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B. This medication can block the usual receptor activity.
Rationale:
1. Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them, blocking the usual receptor activity.
2. Antagonists do not enhance or change normal cellular functions.
3. Antagonists can prevent the effects of agonists (activators) on receptors.
4.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the mechanism of action of an antagonist.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client that will receive a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics act on the distal tubule?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that acts on the distal tubule by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions. This results in increased excretion of water and electrolytes. Furosemide (
A) acts on the loop of Henle, Spironolactone (
B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the collecting duct, and Mannitol (
C) is an osmotic diuretic that acts on the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following medication classifications is considered a cytotoxic chemotherapy agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antimetabolites. Cytotoxic chemotherapy agents are drugs that target and kill rapidly dividing cancer cells. Antimetabolites are a type of chemotherapy agent that interferes with cancer cell growth by disrupting their DNA synthesis or function. Calcium channel blockers (
A), diuretics (
C), and antibiotics (
D) do not directly target cancer cells and are not considered cytotoxic chemotherapy agents. Antimetabolites, on the other hand, specifically inhibit cancer cell proliferation, making them a key class of cytotoxic chemotherapy agents.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following options is a correct indication for omeprazole (Prilosec)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that helps reduce stomach acid production, making it effective in preventing peptic ulcers. Omeprazole works by blocking the final step of acid production in the stomach, thereby protecting the stomach lining from damage. Treating acute duodenal ulcers caused by H. pylori (
Choice
B) typically involves a combination of antibiotics and acid-reducing medications, not omeprazole alone. Omeprazole is not only used for heartburn relief (
Choice
C) but also for long-term management of conditions like GERD. While omeprazole can help with gastric ulcers caused by NSAIDs (
Choice
D), its primary indication is prevention of peptic ulcers.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is educating a client about a new prescription for celecoxib. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching about the medication's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibits COX-2. Celecoxib is a selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) enzyme, which is responsible for inflammation and pain. By inhibiting COX-2, celecoxib reduces inflammation and pain without affecting COX-1, which is important for maintaining the stomach lining.
Therefore, the nurse should include this information in the teaching to explain how celecoxib works.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because celecoxib does not inhibit histamine response, COX-1, or beta receptors. These mechanisms are not relevant to the action of celecoxib in treating inflammation and pain.