ATI Custom Fundamentals Final Exam Fall 2023 | Nurselytic

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the duty to do no harm and to prevent harm to the client. In this scenario, protecting a client's safety aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence as it focuses on ensuring that the client is not harmed by the actions or decisions of the healthcare provider.

A: Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good and promoting the well-being of the client, which is different from the concept of preventing harm.
B: Fidelity refers to the faithfulness and loyalty in the nurse-client relationship, not specifically related to avoiding harm.
C: Justice relates to fairness and equality in the distribution of healthcare resources and services, but it is not directly linked to the prevention of harm in this context.

In summary, the correct answer is D because protecting a client's safety by not causing harm aligns with the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, which emphasizes the obligation to prevent

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Planning. Planning is the step in the nursing process where the nurse formulates goals and establishes a plan of care to achieve positive outcomes for the client. During this stage, the nurse considers the assessment data gathered in the previous step to set specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound goals. The nurse also determines interventions and strategies to help the client reach these goals. Assessment (choice
A) involves collecting data about the client's health status. Evaluation (choice
C) involves assessing the effectiveness of the interventions and determining if goals were met. Implementation (choice
D) involves carrying out the plan of care.

Choices E, F, and G are irrelevant as they are not part of the nursing process steps. In summary, Planning is the correct choice as it directly relates to formulating goals for a positive outcome in the nursing process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because scheduling a mammogram for a client with a family history of breast cancer is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, the client is being screened for breast cancer to detect any abnormalities early on.

A: Influenza vaccination is an example of primary prevention as it aims to prevent the onset of illness.
C: Not scheduling tests for an asymptomatic client does not fall under any level of illness prevention.
D: Scheduling an echocardiogram for a client with heart failure is an example of tertiary prevention, focusing on managing and treating existing conditions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report of dizziness. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardia, which can lead to decreased blood flow and potentially cause dizziness due to reduced oxygen delivery to the brain. A: High temperature is not directly related to heart rate. B: History of smoking may be a risk factor for heart issues but does not directly correlate with the heart rate in this case. D: Hypoglycemia may cause tachycardia, not bradycardia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turn the client on his side before starting oral care. This is important to prevent aspiration in immobile clients. Turning the client on the side helps to prevent choking and ensures proper drainage of fluids. Using a stiff toothbrush (
A) can cause injury to the client's gums. Using fingers to keep the client's mouth open (
C) is inappropriate and can cause discomfort. Applying petroleum jelly to the client's lips (
D) is not directly related to oral care and may not be necessary for all clients.