ATI RN
ATI RN Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Exam A Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a class of newly licensed nurses about infectious diseases that nurses are required to report to the health department. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary tuberculosis. This disease is required to be reported to the health department due to its highly contagious nature and potential for public health implications. Tuberculosis is transmitted through the air, making it a significant risk to the community. Reporting cases to the health department allows for proper monitoring, treatment, and prevention of further spread.
Choices B, C, and D are not required to be reported as they are not highly contagious or pose a significant public health threat compared to tuberculosis. Fibromyalgia syndrome is a chronic pain condition, Herpes simplex virus is common and not reportable, and Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, while concerning, is typically managed within healthcare facilities and does not require reporting to the health department for public health monitoring.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse manager is reviewing medical records to recommend clients for discharge following a local mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for discharge?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A client who is scheduled to have a colonoscopy in 12 hr. This client should be recommended for discharge as they are stable and well enough to undergo a scheduled procedure that is not urgent, indicating their condition is not critical. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Heart failure with recent furosemide administration may require monitoring. B: Chest pain admission 24 hr ago may indicate ongoing evaluation and treatment. C: Seizure 48 hr ago with seizure precautions still needed for safety. In summary, choice D is the best option for discharge given the client's scheduled non-urgent procedure and stable condition.
Extract:
Vital Signs
2000:
Temperature 36.7° C (98.1° F)
Heart rate 98/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Blood pressure 128/84 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
2100:
Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F)
Heart rate 104/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Blood pressure 132/84 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Nurses' Notes
2000:
Client is 38-year-old, G4 P3 at 38 weeks of gestation. Presents for evaluation of labor and spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM). Client states, "My water broke a couple of hours ago and is a greenish color." Client also reports contractions began about 4 hr ago and have become consistently stronger and closer together.
Electronic fetal monitor applied. Small amount of thin green fluid noted on perineal pad. Contraction palpated, lasted 40 seconds, moderate in intensity. Fetal heart rate (FHR) 165/min. Vaginal examination performed: cervix 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, 0 station, vertex presentation.
Client reports a history of chronic hypertension that has been well-controlled during this pregnancy. Also states Was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks of gestation.
2020:
Contractions occurring every 4 to 5 min, lasting 40 to 60
seconds. Small amount of bloody show noted when changing disposable pad on bed. Client rates contraction pain as a 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, breathing well through contractions. FHR 168/min, minimal variability. Client denies epigastric pain or
Question 3 of 5
A nurse in an antepartum unit is caring for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A,C,D,F,G
Rationale: The correct actions for the nurse to take are A, C, D, F, and G. Administering oxygen at 10L/min via a nonrebreather face mask is important for respiratory support. Initiating a bolus of IV fluid helps maintain adequate hydration and perfusion. Assisting the client to the left lateral position promotes optimal blood flow to the fetus. Notifying the provider of the client's condition ensures timely intervention. Lastly, preparing to administer an amnioinfusion may be necessary based on the client's condition. These actions prioritize the client's respiratory, circulatory, and fetal well-being. Other choices like requesting hydralazine or oxytocin may not be indicated without proper assessment and prescription.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is evaluating the progress of a school-age child who takes methylphenidate. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased impulsiveness. Methylphenidate is commonly used to treat ADHD by improving focus and reducing impulsivity. Decreased impulsiveness indicates that the medication is effectively managing the symptoms. B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the expected outcomes of methylphenidate therapy. Decreased abdominal pain (
B) and increased appetite (
C) are not typical indicators of methylphenidate effectiveness, and increased urine output (
D) is not a common side effect or indicator of its therapeutic effect.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is undergoing brachytherapy with a low-dose radiation implant for treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Instruct visitors to stay 1 m (3.3 feet) away from the client. This is important in brachytherapy to minimize radiation exposure to others. Keeping a safe distance helps reduce the risk of radiation exposure. Straining the client's urine (
A) is not necessary for brachytherapy. Limiting visitors' time (
B) does not directly relate to radiation safety. Attaching a dosimeter (
C) is not typically done with low-dose radiation implants.
Therefore, the best choice is D to ensure visitor safety.